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Dakshana full test for neet

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PATTERN : NEET
HST-01(12th Class Syllabus)
TARGET: NEET/AIIMS - 2021
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allot...
4/28/22, 3:42 PM
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Q1
Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the fol...
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Q4
Which of the following is not a steroid hormone ?
Only One Option Is C...
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Dakshana full test for neet

  1. 1. PATTERN : NEET HST-01(12th Class Syllabus) TARGET: NEET/AIIMS - 2021 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. 1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry (45), Physics (45) and Biology (90) questions. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. 6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. ¼ [one fourth (–1)] marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above. Filling the Top-half of the ORS : Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS. 8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed). 9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen. 10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed. 11.Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the bubble corresponding to your answer. 12.Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS. 13.If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final. Name of the Candidate : Roll Number : Dakshana Foundation Head Office: Dakshana Valley, Kadus Village, Pune 412 404, Maharashtra, India Website : www.dakshana.org | E-mail : academics@dakshana.org | Mobile: +91.77987.86405 COURSE : NEET XII Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 720 Dakshana/NEET XIII/HST-01 1/65
  2. 2. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 1/64 Question Question Question Q1 Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the following options :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)1 (0)2 (1)3 (1)4 Q2 Pick out the odd one :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Maxilla (1)Mandible (1)Labrum (0)Antennae Q3 Haemoglobin is dissolved in plasma in :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Cockroach (1)Human (0)Earthworm (1)Rabbit
  3. 3. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 2/64 Question Question Question Q4 Which of the following is not a steroid hormone ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Cortisol (1)Estradiol (0)Insulin (1)Progesterone Q5 Diabetes mellitus is characterized by abnormally ______ glucose level in blood due to ______ called ______. Only One Option Is Correct (1)Low, deficiency of hormone, insulin (0)High, deficiency of hormone, insulin (1)Low, deficiency of hormone, glucagon (1)High, deficiency of enzyme, insulin Q6 Fill in the blanks :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)a - Pituitary, b - Thyroid, c - Adrenal Cortex, d - Gonads, e - Skin (1)a - Pituitary, b - Thyroid, c - Adrenal medulla, d - Gonads, e - Skin (1)a - Pineal, b - Thyroid, c - Adrenal medulla, d - Gonads, e - Skin
  4. 4. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 3/64 Question Question Question (1)a - Pituitary, b - Para Thyroid, c - Adrenal Cortex, d - Gonads, e - Skin Q7 Match the following :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv (1)a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv (0)a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii (1)a - ii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i Q8 Cranial meninges from outside to inside are :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Arachnoid, duramater, piamater (1)Piamater, duramater, arachnoid (0)Duramater, arachnoid, piamater (1)Duramater, piamater, arachnoid Q9 Read the following lines and identify the part of brain :- (a) It is the major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling (b) It forms 80% of diencephalon (c) It does not secrete any hormone Only One Option Is Correct
  5. 5. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 4/64 Question Question Question (1)Cerebellum (1)Hypothalamus (0)Thalamus (1)Corpora quadregemina Q10 Which part of our central nervous system acts as master clock ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Cerebrum (1)Cerebellum (0)Hypothalamus (1)Pituitary gland Q11 Which of the following is incorrect difference ? Only One Option Is Correct (1) Afferent neurons - Conduct impulse towards CNS Efferent neurons - Conduct impulse away from CNS (1) Afferent neurons - Sensory in nature Efferent neurons - Motor in nature (0) Afferent neurons - Results in response by the effectors Efferent neurons - Provide stimulus and evoke senses (1) Afferent neurons - Take information from the receptors Efferent neurons - Take information to effectors Q12 Which part of ear determines the pitch of a sound ? Only One Option Is Correct
  6. 6. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 5/64 Question Question Question (0)Cochlea (1)Tympanic membrane (1)Ear drum (1)Oval window Q13 The region of the vertebrate eye, where the optic nerve passes out of the retina, is called the :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Fovea (1)Iris (0)Blind spot (1)Optic chiasma Q14 Identify A, B, C and D in the diagram given above :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)A-Muscle fibre, B-Sarcolemma, C - Blood capillary, D- Fascicle (1)A - Sarcolemma, B - Muscle fibre, C - Blood capillary, D - Fascicle (1)A - Muscle fibre, B - Fascicle, C - Blood capillary, D - Sarcomere (1)A - Sarcomere, B - Fascicle, C - Blood capillary, D - Muscle fibre
  7. 7. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 6/64 Question Question Q15 Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)Myasthenia gravis (1)Muscular dystrophy (1)Tetany (1)Arthritis Q16 Name the type of joint between the following :- (a) atlas/axis (b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb (c) between phalanges (d) femur/acetabulum Only One Option Is Correct (0)a - Pivot , b - Saddle , c - Hinge, d - Ball and socket (1)a - Pivot , b - Saddle , c - Gliding, d - Ball and socket (1)a - Pivot , b - Gliding , c - Saddle, d - Ball and socket (1)a - Pivot , b - Gliding , c - Hinge, d - Ball and socket Q17 Match the items of column-I with those of column-II Only One Option Is Correct (1)a - i, b- ii, c - iii, d - iv, e - v (1)a - iii, b- iv, c - i, d - v, e - ii (0)a - iii, b- v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii
  8. 8. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 7/64 Question Question Question (1)a - iii, b- iv, c - v, d - i, e - ii Q18 The CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the__A__ of smooth muscles of the bladder and simultaneous __B__of the urethral sphincter causing the release of urine Only One Option Is Correct (0)A - Contraction B - Relaxation (1)A - Relaxation B - Contraction (1)A - Relaxation B - Relaxation (1)A - Contraction B - Contraction Q19 Observe the given figure carefully and answer the questions :- (i) Not a part of nephron (ii) Site of maximum reabsorption (iii) Plays an important role in conservation of water Only One Option Is Correct (1)i - A, ii - B, iii - C (1)i - J, ii - H, iii - F (0)i - J, ii - H, iii - D,E (1)i - J, ii - H, iii - C Q20
  9. 9. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 8/64 Question Question Number of valves in human heart are :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)4 (1)11 (1)6 (1)7 Q21 Match column-I with column-II :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv, e - v (0)a - iii, b - v, c - ii, d - i, e - iv (1)a - iii, b - v, c - i, d - ii, e - iv (1)a - iii, b - v, c - ii, d - iv, e - i Q22 SA node is called pacemaker of the heart. Why ? Only One Option Is Correct (0) Because the SA node can generate maximum number of action potentials and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart. (1) Because the SA node can generate maximum number of action potentials and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.
  10. 10. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 9/64 Question Question Question (1)Because SA node is present in the right atrium of the heart (1)Because SA node is under the control of autonomous nervous system Q23 Which of the following statement is incorrect about jaundice ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Liver is affected (1)Skin and eyes turn yellow (1)In this disease there is deposition of bile pigments (0)A feeling of nausea precedes jaundice Q24 Which of the following is not the process of digestion in duodenum ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Polysaccharides (starch) Disaccharides (1)Fats Diglycerides + Fatty acids (0)Maltose Glucose + Glucose (1)Nucleic acids Nucleotides Q25 Which of the following is the function of bile juice ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Emulsification of fats (1)Digestion of fats (1)Absorption of fats (0)All of the above
  11. 11. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 10/64 Question Question Question Question Q26 How does pepsinogen is converted to its active form ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)In the presence of intrinsic factor (0)In the presence of concentrated HCl (1)In the presence of concentrated H SO 2 4 (1)In the presence of vitamin B12 Q27 What happens to the respiratory process in a man going up a hill? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Breathing rate decreases (0)Breathing rate increases (1)No change in the breathing rate (1)Man will die due to anoxia Q28 _______ is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles. Only One Option Is Correct (0)Asthma (1)Bronchitis (1)Emphysema (1)Fibrosis Q29 Forelimbs are modified into wings in :- Only One Option Is Correct
  12. 12. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 11/64 Question Question (1)Bat, Pigeon (1)Flying fish, Bat (0)Pigeon, Peacock (1)Peacock, Bat Q30 Match the following :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)a - viii, b - v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii, f - vii, g - iii, h - vi (1)a - viii, b - v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii, f - vii, g - vi, h - iii (1)a - viii, b - v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii, f - vi, g - vii, h - iii (1)a - viii, b - iv, c - v, d - i, e - ii, f - vi, g - vii, h - iii Q31 Which of the following is are the exclusive feature of mammal ? (not found in any other animal group) (a) Diaphragm (b) Seven cervical vertebrae (c) Mammary glands (d) Gives birth to young ones (e) Non-nucleated RBC (f) Pinna (g) Corpus callosum in brain Only One Option Is Correct (1)a, b, c, d, e, f, g
  13. 13. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 12/64 Question Question Question (0)a, c, e, f, g (1)a, b, d, e, f (1)a, b, d, e, f, g Q32 Which of the following is not the feature of the animal given below ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Triploblastic, coelomate animal (1)Compound eyes are present (0)Respiratory organs are book lungs (1)Excretory organs are malpighian tubules Q33 Notochord is a ______ derived rod like structure formed on the ______ side during embryonic development in some animals. Only One Option Is Correct (0)Mesodermally, dorsal (1)Mesodermally, ventral (1)Endodermally, dorsal (1)Ectodermally, dorsal Q34
  14. 14. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 13/64 Question Question Question Given diagram above is a type of symmetry, found in :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Aschelminthes and adult echinoderms (1)Platyhelminthes and adult echinoderms (0)Annelida and arthropoda (1)Annelida and coelentrata Q35 Which of the following organisms have tissue level of organisation? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Porifera and coelentrata (1)Porifera and ctenophore (0)Coelentrata and ctenophora (1)Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes Q36 Which of the following statement is incorrect? Only One Option Is Correct (1)The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression (0)All the cartilages in vertebrate embryo are replaced by bones in adults (1)Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear joints, between adjacent bones of vertebral column, limbs and hands of adults (1)Cells of cartilage are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them
  15. 15. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 14/64 Question Question Q37 Given below is an example of connective tissue. Identify the examples of this diagram :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)Tendons and ligaments (1)Tendons and piamater (1)Ligaments and piamater (1)Tendons and duramater Q38 The cells of epithelial tissues are ______packed with ______ intercellular matrix. Only One Option Is Correct (1)Loosely, little (1)Loosely, large (0)Compactly, little (1)Tightly, large Q39 The structures of the cells vary according to their function. Therefore, the tissues are different and are broadly classified into four types :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Epithelial, connective, muscular, areolar (1)Epithelial, connective, muscular, adipose (0)Epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous (1)Epithelial, connective, nervous, areolar
  16. 16. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 15/64 Question Question Question Q40 Find out the correct match from the following table? Only One Option Is Correct (1)(i), (ii) (0)Only (iii) (1)(i), (ii), (iii) (1)Only (ii) Q41 Identify the given diagrame and select the correct option in respect of given diagrame? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Hypostomatic leaf (0)Amphistomatic leaf (1)Found in lilium plant (1)Both 2 and 3 Q42 Find out the correct examples for given floral diagrams :-
  17. 17. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 16/64 Question Question Only One Option Is Correct (0)Sunhemp, Mustard, Petunia (1)Belladonna, Tulip, Pea (1)Pea, Mustard, Tulip (1)Pea, Mustard, Tulip Q43 Choose the correct floral formula for onion Only One Option Is Correct (1) (1) (1)r (0)r Q44 How many of the given plants have papilionaceous corolla. Sunhemp, Trifolium, Chilli, Petunia, Lupin, Aloe, Muliathi, Tulip Only One Option Is Correct (1)7 (1)6 (1)5 (0)4
  18. 18. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 17/64 Question Question Question Q45 Which is not a true statement? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Lateral meristems are cylindrical meristems (1) Both apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristems because they appear early in the life of a plant and contribute to the formation of the primary plant body. (0)Mature cells constitute the meristematic tissue (1)The meristem that appears later than primary meristem is called the secondary meristem. Q46 During the elongation of stem and formation of new leaves some cells of shoot apical meristem left behind which constitute the axillary bud. Identify the region of axillary bud in the given diagram Only One Option Is Correct (1)A (1)B (0)C (1)D Q47 Flowers of pea, gram & bean are :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Actinomorphic and epigynous
  19. 19. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 18/64 Question Question Question (1)Actinomorphic and epigynous (0)Zygomorphic and hypogynous (1)Zygomorphic and epigynous Q48 Which part of the Australian acacia plant becomes green expanded & synthesises food? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Leaf lamina (1)Leaf base (0)Leaf petiole (1)All of the above Q49 Sexual reproduction - oogamous type and accompanied by complex post fertilization development in? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Chlorophyceae (1)Phaeophyceae (1)Cyanophyceae (0)Rhodophyceae Q50 Which of the following includes all the others? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Order (0)Class (1)Family (1)Species
  20. 20. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 19/64 Question Question Question Question Q51 Which taxon is not related to wheat? Only One Option Is Correct (0)Sapindales (1)Monocotyledonae (1)Poaceae (1)Triticum Q52 What is not found in members of deuteromycetes? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Conidia formation (1)Branched and septated mycelium (0)Sexual reproduction (1)Decomposer nature Q53 Which process is common in between bacteria and fungi? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Nitrogen fixation ability (0)Production of antibiotics (1)Production of carbohydrate (1)Type of cellular organization Q54 R-plasmid has gene for the resistance from? Only One Option Is Correct
  21. 21. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 20/64 Question Question Question (1)Certain microbes (0)Certain drugs (1)Fertilization (1)Environmental condition Q55 Male gametes are flagellated in? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Nostoc (1)Polysiphonia (1)Spirogyra (0)Fucus Q56 Eubacteria differ from mycoplasma in? Only One Option Is Correct (1)In having cell membrane (1)In having ribosome (0)In having cell wall (1)In having ds DNA Q57 Choose the incorrect pair regarding body differentiation Only One Option Is Correct (1)Brown algae – Fronds, stipe and holdfast (1)Insect – Head, thorax and abdomen (0)Bryophyta – Root, stem like and leaf like (1)Mollusca – Head, muscular foot and visceral hump
  22. 22. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 21/64 Question Question Question Question Q58 Protonema, gamete, bud, spore, spore mother cells, gametophyte, zygote, embryo, sporophyll, prothallus. How many of above structure are haploid in bryophytes? Only One Option Is Correct (1)7 (1)6 (0)5 (1)4 Q59 Which option is related to Volvox and Fucus? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Both have same ploidy level in main plant body (0)Both have oogamy (1)Both have chlorophyll 'a' and 'b' (1)Both have motile colony and unequal laterally flagella Q60 Choose the incorrect statement regarding virus :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)They cause diseases like mumps, small pox, herpes and influenza (1)They are obligate parasites (1) They are inert outside their specific host cell (0)Viral infection completely cure by antibiotics Q61
  23. 23. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 22/64 Question Question Which one of the following is a parasite on mustard? Only One Option Is Correct (0)Albugo (1)Rhizopus (1)Puccinia (1)Agaricus Q62 Which option is not related to Euglenoids? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Majority of them are fresh water organisms found in stagnant water. (1)The pigments are identical to those present in higher plants (1)When deprived of sunlight they behave like heterotrophs (0)Most of them have two flagella; one lies longitudinally and the other transversely Q63 Which of the following statement is correct for the given structure? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Main respiratory substance. (1)It rotates plane-polarized light in the right direction. (0)More abundant in honey and sweet fruits so also known as fruit sugar. (1)Main component of plant cell wall.
  24. 24. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 23/64 Question Question Question Question Q64 Which of the following is not correct for the isoelectric point of an amino acid? Only One Option Is Correct (1)At isoelectric point, amino acid is present in zwitter ion form. (1)At isoelectric point amino acid do not move in electric field. (1)At isoelectric point net charge of amino acid becomes zero. (0)At isoelectric point lysine amino acid move towards anode in electric field. Q65 __A__ and __B__ are sulphur containing amino acid. Fill up the blanks :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)A- Cysteine , B- Proline (0)A- Cysteine , B- Methionine (1)A- Glycine , B- Methionine (1)A- Serine , B- Alanine Q66 Amino acids are amphoteric compound because they contains Only One Option Is Correct (1)Two acidic groups (1)One hydrophilic and one hydrophobic end (0)One acidic – COOH and one alkaline group –NH2 (1)Two alkaline groups Q67 Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B). In oligosaccharides, monosaccharides are linked together by __A__. One molecule of __B__ is eliminated during the bond formation. Here (A) and (B) are?
  25. 25. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 24/64 Question Question Question Only One Option Is Correct (1)A → glycosidic bond; B → H S 2 (1)A → Phosphoester bond; B → H O 2 (0)A → Glycosidic bond; B → H O 2 (1)A → Peptide bond; B → H S 2 Q68 In many plants vegetative shoot apex is modified into reproductive shoot apex in response to :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Oxygen present in the air (1)Food materials available in the soil (1)Minerals availability in soil (0)Length of the day and night time Q69 Choose the incorrect option for the given figure. Only One Option Is Correct (1)Both of the progeny cells following mitotic cell division retains the ability to divide. (1)We get a typical sigmoid curve for this type of growth under natural condition (1)This type of rate of growth is also called efficiency index. (0)Only one daughter cell continous to divide while the other differentiates and matures.
  26. 26. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 25/64 Question Question Question Q70 Choose the correct statements for plant growth regulators Only One Option Is Correct (1)They are organic compounds and are capable of influencing physiological activities leading to promotion of growth only. (1)Mostly they are intracellular chemicals factors (0)These growth regulatory substances are also responsible for inhibition and modification of plant growth. (1)All growth promotors are indole compounds. Q71 The microbe rhizobium is not found in the nitrogen-fixing nodules on the roots of which group of plants Only One Option Is Correct (1)Alfalfa and lentils (1)Broad bean and clover bean (0)Alfalfa and alnus (1)Sweet clover and clover bean Q72 Mineral ions are frequently remobilized, particularly from older senescing parts. Elements most readily mobilized are? Only One Option Is Correct (1)P, S, Ca, N (1)P, S, K, Ca (0)P, S, N, K (1)Ca, S, N, K Q73 During day time, if a green plant transferred to a CO free environment and in this environment water available to plant is less and transpiration rate is high than choose the correct option for this plant Only One Option Is Correct 2
  27. 27. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 26/64 Question Question Question (1)Stomata remains open and plant photosynthesis is high. (0)Plant undergo water stress and stomata closed (1)Stomata remains open and plant undergo CO stress 2 (1)Stomata closed and water absorption increased. Q74 The major proportion of water flow in the root cortex occurs via? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Symplast (1)Transmembrane pathway (1)Facilitated diffusion (0)Apoplast Q75 If a plant cell is placed into a hypotonic solution, then what will happen? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Endosmosis and the difference between the inside of cell and the outside of is increased. (1)Exosmosis and the difference between the inside cell and the outside of is increased. (1)Exosmosis and the difference between the inside cell and outside of is reduced (0)Endosmosis and the difference between the inside cell and outside of is reduced. Q76 Enzymes are also termed as biocatalyst because? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Enzymes are work at specific pH.
  28. 28. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 27/64 Question Question Question (1)Km constant of enzyme is always low. (1)They help to achieve the transition state of substrate during chemical reaction (0)The enzymes enhance the rate of biochemical reaction Q77 Which one is not required for the continuity of the Krebs cycle? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Succinyle Co-A is oxidised to OAA (1)Regeneration of NAD and FAD + + (1)Supply of oxygen in mitochondria of the cell (0)Activity of alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme Q78 During respiration in cell, first step of breakdown of glucose is common in all organisms because :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Cells of the all organisms have mitochondria. (1)Oxygen is compulsory for respiration. (1)Glucose is finally converted into CO and H O. 2 2 (0)All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise glucose without the help of oxygen. Q79 Choose the correct match in given table for C and C plant :- Only One Option Is Correct 3 4 (1) In which cells calvin cycle run C -plant -Mesophyll C -plant - Mesophyll 3 4
  29. 29. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 28/64 Question Question (1) Photorespiration at high light intensities C -plant -High C -plant - High 3 4 (0) Number of carbons in primary CO acceptor in calvin cycle C -plant -5C C -plant - 5C 2 3 4 (1) RuBiSCO is found in C -plant -Mesophyll C -plant - Mesophyll 3 4 Q80 During chemiosmosis proton gradient is important because :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)The gradient is broken down due to the movement of electrons in the thylakoid membrane. (1)Protons in the stroma increase in numbers. (0)Breakdown of this gradient leads to release energy. (1)ATPase has a channel that allows diffusion of protons from stroma to lumen. Q81 In the given figure of the light harvesting complex choose the correct option for A :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Same redox behaviour in both pigment systems. (1)Same absorption peak in both pigment systems. (1)Make the photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different wavelengths of light. (0)During Z-scheme of light reaction, A of both pigment systems interact with each other
  30. 30. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 29/64 Question Question Question Q82 Match the stages of meiosis in column-I to their characters in the column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below Only One Option Is Correct (1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (1)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (0)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (1)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III Q83 Interkinesis is a period between Only One Option Is Correct (1)Prophase-I and metaphase-I (1)Anaphase-I and prophase-II (0)Telophase-I and prophase-II (1)Anaphase-II and telophase-II Q84 If you are provided with root tips of onion in your class and asked to count the number and define the shape of the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look at respectively? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Prophase, metaphase (1)Metaphase, telophase (1)Metaphase, prophase (0)Metaphase, anaphase
  31. 31. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 30/64 Question Question Question Q85 If a cell have chromosome number 2n = 40 then choose the correct option for metaphase and anaphase of mitosis :- Only One Option Is Correct (1) Metaphase → 40 chromosome Anaphase → 40 chromatids (0) Metaphase → 80 chromatids Anaphase → 80 chromatids (1) Metaphase → 80 chromosome Anaphase → 80 chromatids (1) Metaphase → 40 chromtids Anaphase → 40 chromatids Q86 Choose the correct statement for chromosomes :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)Chromosome number is constant for individuals of a species. (1)The number of autosomes in human is 46. (1)The size of chromosome is measured during prophase. (1)A chromosome with a very short arm and a very long arm is termed as submetacentric. Q87 Ribosomes are made up of :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)RNA only (1)RNA, DNA and lipids (0)Nucleic acid, proteins and Mg++ (1)DNA, proteins and Mg++
  32. 32. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 31/64 Question Question Question Question Q88 Which one double membrane-bound cell organelle can be found in non-green, living plant cells only? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Nucleus (1)Mitochondria (1)Chloroplast (0)Aleuroplast Q89 Which one option is not true about cell walls? Only One Option Is Correct (1)Plant cell wall is a non living structure (1)Plant cell wall is made up of cellulose (1)Plasmodesma exchange the materials between protoplasm of the neighbouring cells. (0)Cell wall is selectively permeable boundary Q90 The cell organelle found in all type of cells which contain nucleic acid is:- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Nucleus (0)Ribosome (1)Mitochondria (1)Nucleolus Q91 The ratio between the root mean square velocity of H at 50 K and that of O at 800 K is :- 2 2
  33. 33. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 32/64 Question Question Question Only One Option Is Correct (1)4 (1)2 (0)1 (1)1/4 Q92 Which of the following statements is false ? Only One Option Is Correct (0)The product of pressure and volume of fixed amount of a gas is independent of temperature (1)Molecules of different gases have the same kinetic energy at a given temperature (1)The gas equation is not valid at high pressure and low temperature (1)The gas constant per molecule is known as Boltzmann's constant Q93 When a manganous salt is fused with a mixture of KNO and solid NaOH, the oxidation number of Mn changes from +2 to :- Only One Option Is Correct 3 (1)+4 (1)+3 (0)+6 (1)+7 Q94 Which of the following sequence of compounds is according to the decreasing order of the oxidation state of nitrogen ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)HNO , NO, NH Cl, N 3 4 2 (0)HNO , NO, N , NH Cl 3 2 4
  34. 34. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 33/64 Question Question Question (1)HNO , NH Cl, NO, N 3 4 2 (1)NO, HNO , NH Cl, N 3 4 2 Q95 In the reaction, 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2Al (aq) + 6Cl (aq) + 3H (g) Only One Option Is Correct 3+ – 2 (1)6L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3L H (g) produced 2 (1)33.6 L H (g) is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts 2 (1)67.2 L H (g) at 1 atm and 273 K is produced for every mole Al that reacts 2 (0)11.2 L H (g) at 1 atm at 273 K is produced for every mole HCl(aq) Consumed 2 Q96 Which of the following contains the largest mass of hydrogen atoms ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)5.0 moles C H O 2 2 4 (1)1.1 moles C H O 3 8 3 (1)1.5 moles C H O 6 8 6 (0)4.0 moles C H O 2 4 2 Q97 20 g of an ideal gas contains only atoms of S and O occupies 5.6 L at 1 atm and 273 K. What is the molecular mass of gas ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)64 (0)80 (1)96 (1)60
  35. 35. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 34/64 Question Question Question Q98 Which of the following relation of equilibrium constants is correct for reactions given :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)log K = log K + log K 3 1 2 (0)log K + log K + log K = 0 1 2 3 (1)log K = log K – log K 3 1 2 (1)log K = 1/2 [log K + log K ] 3 1 2 Q99 Which of the following will show maximum hydrolysis :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)0.1 CH COONa 3 (1)0.01 CH COONa 3 (1)0.001 CH COONa 3 (0)0.0001 CH COONa 3 Q100 In the reaction x(g) + y(g) 2z(g) 2 mole of x, 1 mole of y and 1 mole of z are placed in a 10 Litre vessel and allowed to reach equilibrium. If final concentration of z is 0.2M then equilibrium constant for the reaction is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)1.60 (1)80/3 (0)16/3 (1)3.5
  36. 36. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 35/64 Question Question Question Q101 At 200°C, nitrogen oxide reacts with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide as follows : 2NO + O 2NO , K = 3 × 10 In a mixture of the three species at equilibrium, we can accurately predict that Only One Option Is Correct 2 2 C 6 (1)The concentrations of both NO and O will be much larger than the concentration of NO 2 2 (1)The concentrations of both NO and O will be always much smaller than the concentration of NO 2 2 (0)The concentrations of either NO or O and possibly both will be much smaller than the concentration of NO 2 2 (1)The concentration of O will be exactly one half the concentration of NO 2 Q102 In the following reaction Which are the two Bronsted bases Only One Option Is Correct (1)HC O and PO 2 4 – 4 3– (1)HPO and C O 4 2– 2 4 2– (1)HC O and HPO 2 4– 4 2– (0)PO and C O 4 3– 2 4 2– Q103 Which Transition in Be would have same wave length as 2 → 4 Transition in He ? Only One Option Is Correct 3+ + (1)2 → 4 (1)1 → 3
  37. 37. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 36/64 Question Question Question (1)3 → 6 (0)4 → 8 Q104 The Enthalpies of elements in their standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of formation of a compound. Only One Option Is Correct (1)is always negative (1)is always positive (0)may be +ve or –ve (1)is never –ve Q105 The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10 g cm s . The uncertainty in electron velocity is approx : (mass of an electron is 9 × 10 g) :- Only One Option Is Correct –18 –1 –28 (1)1 × 10 cm s 5 –1 (1)1 × 10 cm s 11 –1 (0)1 × 10 cm s 9 –1 (1)1 × 10 cm s 6 –1 Q106 When huge amount of sevage is dumped into a river, the BOD will – Only One Option Is Correct (0)Increase (1)Remain unchanged (1)Slightly decrease (1)Decrease
  38. 38. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 37/64 Question Question Question Q107 The IUPAC name of following compound CH CH NHCHO :- Only One Option Is Correct 3 2 (1)N-Formyl ethanamide (1)Ethylamino methanal (0)N-Ethyl methanamide (1)N-Ethyl methanol Q108 Relation between following compound is : Only One Option Is Correct (1)Metamers (1)Chain isomers (0)Functional group isomers (1)Not isomers Q109 Arrange following in increasing order of C–N bond length : Only One Option Is Correct (1)Q < P < R < S (0)P < R < S < Q (1)R < S < Q < P
  39. 39. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 38/64 Question Question Question (1)S < R < Q < P Q110 Arrange the following in correct order of reactivity for ESR :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)(IV) > (III) > (II) > (I) (1)(I) > (II) > (III) > (IV) (1)(IV) > (II) > (I) > (III) (0)(IV) > (II) > (III) > (I) Q111 Which of the following does't show G.I. - Only One Option Is Correct (1)CH – CH = CH – CH 3 3 (0)H(Cl)C = C = C = C = CH(Cl) (1) (1) Q112 Which is most reactive for nucleophilic addition reaction :- Only One Option Is Correct
  40. 40. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 39/64 Question Question (1) (1) (0) (1) Q113 The correct order of stability of given carbonion is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)III > II > IV > I (1)II > III > I > IV (1)II > III > IV > I (0)III > II > I > IV Q114 Product (C) is :- Only One Option Is Correct
  41. 41. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 40/64 Question Question Question (0)Butane (1)Hexane (1)Octane (1)Heptane Q115 In the following compound [P] :-. x = no. of localised lone pair, then what will be the value of ‘x’. Only One Option Is Correct (0)4 (1)5 (1)6 (1)3 Q116 Rank the following in decreasing order of heat of hydrogenation :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)iii > i > ii > iv (1)i > iii > ii > iv (0)iv > ii > iii > i (1)iv > iii > ii > i
  42. 42. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 41/64 Question Question Q117 Which of following are aromatic in character :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)I, II, III, IV, V (1)I, II, V (0)I, II, III, V (1)I, IV, VI Q118 In how many compound inductive & resonance both effect operate by the attached group. Only One Option Is Correct (1)5 (1)4 (0)3 (1)2 Q119 Which of the following compound has deficiency mainly at ortho and para positions. Only One Option Is Correct
  43. 43. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 42/64 Question Question (1) (1) (1) (0)(1) & (2) both Q120 Which of the following resonating structure is not valid ? Only One Option Is Correct (1) (1) (0) (1) Q121 H O < H O order is incorrect for :- Only One Option Is Correct 2 2 2 (1)Boiling point
  44. 44. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 43/64 Question Question Question (1)Acidic nature (1)Dipole moment (0)Dipole moment Q122 Which is not a method to prepare H O :- Only One Option Is Correct 2 2 (1)Oxidation of 2-ethyl Anthraquinol (0)H S O 2 2 7 (1)BaO . 8H O 2 2 (1)K S O 2 2 8 Q123 Metallic hydrides are :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Also known as interstitial hydrides (1)Are good conductor of electricity (1)Have more M.P. than their metals (0)All are correct Q124 Correct order of Density in IIA group is :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)Ca < Mg < Be (1)Be < Mg < Ca (1)Be < Ca < Mg (1)Mg < Be < Ca
  45. 45. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 44/64 Question Question Question Question Q125 When Na and Li placed in dry air we get :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)NaOH, Na O, Li O 2 2 (1)Na CO , Na O , Li O 2 3 2 2 2 (1)Na O, Li N, NH 2 3 3 (0)Na O, Li O, Li N 2 2 3 Q126 B H + NH → Addition compound (X) (X) Y + Z (g) In the above sequence Y and Z are respectively Only One Option Is Correct 2 6 3 (1)Borazine, H O 2 (1)Boron, H2 (1)Boron nitride, H2 (0)Borazine and hydrogen Q127 In Borax bead test characterstic colour appears due to formation of– Only One Option Is Correct (0)Metaborate of transition metals (1)Sodium Metaborate (1)Boron oxide (1)Boric anhydride
  46. 46. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 45/64 Question Question Q128 Which is not monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer. Only One Option Is Correct (1)PhSiCl3 (1)MeSiCl3 (1)Me SiCl 2 2 (0)Me SiCl 3 Q129 Which has zero dipole moment ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)1,1-Dichloroethene (1)Cis-1,2-dichloroethene (0)Trans-1,2-dichloroethene (1)None of these Q130 Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is NOT observed in : Only One Option Is Correct (1)A, B
  47. 47. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 46/64 Question Question Question (1)B, D (0)A, C (1)All are possible Q131 Identify the incorrect order :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)HF > HCl > HBr > HI ; Acidic nature (1)Li (aq) < Be (aq.) ; hydrated radius + +2 (1)LiF > NaF > KF > RbF ; Lattice energy (1)Cl > F > Br > I ; e– affinity Q132 In PCl , axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds because– Only One Option Is Correct 5 (1)Equatorial bonds lie in same plane (0)Axial bonds have more % p character than equatorial bonds (1)Irregular electron distribution in atom 'P' (1)There is bond angle of 90° between equatorial bonds. Q133 Which of the following combination of orbitals does not form covalent bond (x-axis is internuclear axis) :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)s + py (1)p + p y y (1)d + d yz yz (1)d + d xy xy
  48. 48. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 47/64 Question Question Question Q134 Among Al O , SiO , P O and SO the correct order of acid strength is :- Only One Option Is Correct 2 3 2 2 3 2 (1)SO < P O < SiO < Al O 2 2 3 2 2 3 (0)Al O < SiO < P O < SO 2 3 2 2 3 2 (1)Al O < SiO < SO < P O 2 3 2 2 2 3 (1)SiO < SO < Al O < P O 2 2 2 3 2 3 Q135 2nd I.P. would be :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)Equal to 1st I.P. but greater than 3rd I.P. (1)Less than 1st I.P. but greater than 3rd I.P. (0)Greater than 1st I.P. but less than 3rd I.P. (1)Equal to 1st and 2nd I.P. Q136 A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan : (Take g = 10 m/s ) Only One Option Is Correct 2 (0)10.0 cm (1)any value less than 12.0 cm (1)4.0 cm (1)8.0 cm
  49. 49. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 48/64 Question Question Question Q137 A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If = it is given a small vertical displacement from equilibrium, it oscillates with a time period T, then :- Only One Option Is Correct (1) (1) (0) (1) Q138 A particle crossing the origin of the coordinates at time t = 0, moves in the xy plane with a constant acceleration β in the y-direction. If its equation is y = αx . (α is a constant), its velocity component in the x-direction is :- Only One Option Is Correct 2 (1) (1) (1) (0) Q139 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a time period of 16s. At time t = 2s, the particle crosses the mean position while at t = 4 s, its velocity is 4 ms . The amplitude of motion (in metre) is :- Only One Option Is Correct –1
  50. 50. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 49/64 Question Question Question (1) (1) (1) (0) Q140 If the length of a stretched string is shortened by 40% and the tension is increased by 44%, then the ratio of the final and initial fundamental frequencies is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)3 : 4 (1)4 : 3 (1)1 : 3 (0)2 : 1 Q141 A flat plate moves normally with a speed towards a horizontal jet of water of uniform area of cross-section. The jet discharges water at the rate of volume V per second at a speed of The density of water is ρ. Assume that water splashes along the surface of the plate at right angles to the original motion. The magnitude of the force acting on the plate due to the jet of water is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1) (0) (1) (1) Q142 An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s making an angle of 45º with horizontal. The equation for the trajectory is h = Ax – Bx where h is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B are constants. The ratio A : B is (g = 10 ms ) 2 –2
  51. 51. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 50/64 Question Question Question Only One Option Is Correct (1)1 : 5 (1)5 : 1 (1)1 : 40 (0)40 : 1 Q143 Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are Only One Option Is Correct (1)14 unit (0)5√3 unit (1)10√3 unit (1)20√3 unit Q144 A whistle emitting a sound of frequency 440 Hz is tied to a string of 1.5 m length and rotated with an angular velocity of 20 rad/s in the horizontal plane. Then the range of frequencies heard by an observer stationed at a large distance from the whistle will be (v = 330 m/s) :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)400.0 Hz to 484.0 Hz (1)403.3 Hz to 480.0 Hz (1)400.0 Hz to 480.0 Hz (0)403.3 Hz to 484.0 Hz Q145 A body of mass 40 g is moving with a velocity of v . If an impulse J is imparted to the body such that its velocity becomes v , then : Only One Option Is Correct 1 2 (1)J = 20v + 20v 1 2 (0)J = 40(v – v ) 2 1
  52. 52. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 51/64 Question Question Question (1)J = 40(v + v ) 1 2 (1)J = 20(v – v ) 2 1 Q146 A rocket of initial mass 1500 kg ejects gas at a constant rate of 10 kg/s with a relative speed of 5 km/s. What is the acceleration of the rocket 50 seconds after the blast, neglecting gravity ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)10 m s–2 (1)25 m s–2 (0)50 m s–2 (1)100 m s–2 Q147 A machine gun is mounted on a 2000 kg vehicle on a horizontal smooth road (friction negligible). The gun fires 10 bullets per sec with a velocity of 500 m/s. If the mass of each bullet be 10g, what is the acceleration produced in the vehicle ? Only One Option Is Correct (0)2.5 cm/s2 (1)25 cm/s2 (1)50 cm/s2 (1)25 m/s2 Q148 A balloon has 8 gram of air. A small hole is pierced into it. The air escapes at a uniform rate of 7 cm s . If the balloon shrinks in 5.6 seconds then the average force acting on the balloon is Only One Option Is Correct –1 (0)10 N –4 (1)10 dyne –2 (1)56 dyne (1)10 N –6
  53. 53. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 52/64 Question Question Question Q149 An electric pump is used to fill an overhead tank of capacity 9 m , kept at a height of 10 m above the ground. If the pump takes 5 minutes to fill the tank by consuming 10 kW power, the efficiency of the pump should be : (Take g = 10 ms ) Only One Option Is Correct 3 –2 (1)60% (1)40% (1)20% (0)30% Q150 A 1.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface when a horizontal force in the positive direction of x-axis is applied to the block. The force is given by : where x is in metre and the initial position of the block is x = 0. The maximum kinetic energy of the block between x = 0 and x = 2.0 m is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)2.33 J (1)8.67 J (0)5.33 J (1)6.67 J Q151 Volume versus temperature graph of two moles of helium gas is as shown in figure. The ratio of heat absorbed and the work done by the gas in process 1-2 is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)3 (0)5/2 (1)5/3
  54. 54. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 53/64 Question Question Question (1)7/2 Q152 In a Carnot engine, when T = 0°C and T = 200°C, its efficiency is η and when T = 0°C and T = –200°C, Its efficiency is η , then what is η /η :- Only One Option Is Correct 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 (0)0.577 (1)0.733 (1)0.638 (1)Can not be calculated Q153 A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating without motion on still water. A man of mass 100 kg is at one end and if he runs to the other end of the boat and stops, the displacement of the boat is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)1.5 m in the direction of displacement of the man (1)0.75 m in the direction of displacement of the man (0)1.5 m in the direction opposite to the displacement of the man (1)0.75 m in the direction opposite to the displacement of the man Q154 A circular plate of uniform thickness has a diameter of 56 cm. A circular portion of diameter 42 cm is removed from one edge as shown in the figure. The centre of mass of the remaining portion from the centre of plate will be :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)5 cm
  55. 55. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 54/64 Question Question Question (1)7 cm (0)9 cm (1)11 cm Q155 Two identical particles each of mass m are separated by a distance 2R. Find the gravitational field strength at P : Only One Option Is Correct (0) (1) (1) (1)None of these Q156 A stone of mass 1 kg tied to light inextensible string of length L = 10/3 m is whirling in a circular path of radius L in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum to the minimum tension in the string is 4 and g = 10 m/s , the speed of the stone at the highest point of the circle is : Only One Option Is Correct 2 (1)20 m/s (1)10√3 m /s (1)5√2 m /s (0)10 m/s
  56. 56. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 55/64 Question Question Q157 A simple pendulum is vibrating with an angular amplitude of 90° as shown in the adjoining figure. For what value of α, is the acceleration directed ? (i) vertically upwards (ii) horizontally (iii) vertically downwards Only One Option Is Correct (0) (1) (1) (1) Q158 The orbital angular momentum of a satellite revolving at a distance r from the centre is L. If the distance is increased to 4r. Then the new angular momentum will be :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)L (0)2L (1)L/2 (1)4L Q159
  57. 57. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 56/64 Question Question Question A pendulum clock keeps correct time at 20°C. The correction to be made during summer per day where the average temperature is 40°C will be : (Take coefficient of linear expansion of the material of pendulum = 10 /°C) :- Only One Option Is Correct –5 (1)5.86 s (1)7.82 s (0)8.64 s (1)9.28 s Q160 A particle of mass m = 5 units is moving with a uniform speed v = 3√2 m in the XOY-plane along the line Y = X + 4. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the particle about the origin is : Only One Option Is Correct (1)zero (0)60 unit (1)7.5 unit (1)40√2 unit Q161 A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is : Only One Option Is Correct (1)Mω L 2 (0)1/2 Mω L 2 (1)2Mω L 2 (1)none of these Q162 In an experiment the values of two resistances were measured to be R = (5.0 ± 0.2) Ω & R = (10.0 ± 0.1) Ω. Then their combined resistance in series will be :- Only One Option Is Correct 1 2
  58. 58. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 57/64 Question Question (1)(15 ± 0.1) Ω (1)(15 ± 0.2) Ω (0)(15 ± 2%) Ω (1)(15 ± 3%) Ω Q163 Figure I, II, III and IV depict variation of force with time : the impulse is highest in the case of situations depicted. Figure : Only One Option Is Correct (1)I and II (1)III and I (0)III and IV (1)IV only Q164 Figure shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.
  59. 59. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 58/64 Question Question In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be : Only One Option Is Correct (1)500 J (0)460 J (1)300 J (1)380 J Q165 A force is acting on a particle the work done by this force in displacing the body from (1, 2, 3) m to (3, 6, 1) m :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)–10 J (1)100 J (1)10 J (1)1 J Q166 The equation of state for 5g of nitrogen gas at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be :– Only One Option Is Correct (1)PV = 5 RT (1)PV = (5/2) RT (1)PV = (5/14) RT
  60. 60. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 59/64 Question Question Question (0)PV = (5/28)RT Q167 A smooth uniform rod of length L and mass M has two indentical beads of negligible size, each of mass m, which can slide freely along the rod. Initially, the two beads are at the centre of the rod and the system is rotating with angular velocity ω about an axis perpendicular to rod and passing through the mid-point of rod. There are no external forces. When the beads reach the ends of the rod the angular velocity of the system is :- Only One Option Is Correct 0 (1) (0) (1) (1)ω0 Q168 The compressibility of water is 4 × 10 per unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 100 cc of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be :- Only One Option Is Correct –5 (0)0.4 cc (1)4 × 10 cc –5 (1)0.025 cc (1)0.004 cc Q169 Two satellites A and B, ratio of masses 3 : 1 are in circular orbits of radii r and 4r. The ratio of total mechanical energy of A to that of B is :- Only One Option Is Correct
  61. 61. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 60/64 Question Question (1)1 : 3 (1)3 : 1 (1)3 : 4 (0)12 : 1 Q170 Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made of steel and other made of brass are loaded as shown in figure. The unloaded length of the steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass is 1.0 m. Young's modulus of steel is 2.0 × 10 Nm and that of brass is 1.0 × 10 Nm . The ratio of elongations of steel and brass wires Only One Option Is Correct 11 –2 11 –2 (0)1.25 (1)1.5 (1)2.0 (1)0.5 Q171 A sphere of mass m and radius r rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping with the speed u. Now, if it rolls up vertically, the maximum height it would attain will be :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)3u / 4g 2 (1)5u / 2g 2 (0)7u / 10g 2 (1)u / 2g 2
  62. 62. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 61/64 Question Question Question Q172 Four particles each of mass M are located at the vertices of a square with side L. The gravitational potential due to this at the centre of the square is :- Only One Option Is Correct (0) (1) (1)zero (1) Q173 With what velocity a ball be projected vertically so that the distance covered by it in 5 second is twice the distance it covers in its 6 second (g = 10 m/s ) :- Only One Option Is Correct th th 2 (1)58.8 m/s (1)49 m/s (0)65 m/s (1)19.6 m/s Q174 An empty plastic box of mass m is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6 when placed deep inside water. How much sand should be put inside the box so that it may accelerate down at the rate of g/6 ? Only One Option Is Correct (1)2m/3 (0)2m/5 (1)3m/4 (1)3m/5
  63. 63. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 62/64 Question Question Q175 Two tuning forks P and Q are vibrated together. The number of beats produced are represented by the straight line OA in the following graph. After loading Q with wax again these are vibrated together and the beats produced are represented by the line OB. If the frequency of P is 341Hz, the frequency of Q will be :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)341 Hz (1)338 Hz (0)344 Hz (1)None of the above Q176 Two pulses of same amplitude are moving in opposite direction along the string according to the figure. The speed of the wave is 2 cm/sec. Initially the pulses are 8 cm apart. What will be the position of pulses after two seconds : Only One Option Is Correct (1) (1) (0)
  64. 64. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 63/64 Question Question Question (1) Q177 There are three sources of sound of equal intensity with frequencies 400, 401 and 402 vib/sec. The number of beats heard per second is :- Only One Option Is Correct (1)0 (1)1 (0)2 (1)3 Q178 Consider the situation as shown in the diagram : The coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.5. The acceleration of the lower block is :- Only One Option Is Correct (0)1 m/s2 (1)1.5 m/s2 (1)2 m/s2 (1)2.5 m/s2 Q179 Consider the situation as shown in the figure :-
  65. 65. 4/28/22, 3:42 PM 64/64 Question Only One Option Is Correct (1)The acceleration of M is 2g/3 (1)The tension in the string connecting A and B is Mg/3 (1)The reaction on pulley A is at an angle 45° with the horizontal (0)All the options are correct Q180 A lift is moving in upward direction. The total mass of the lift and the passengers is 1600 kg. The variation of the velocity of the lift is as shown in the figure. The tension in the rope at t = 8 second will be :- Only One Option Is Correct th (0)11200 N (1)16000 N (1)4800 N (1)12000 N

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