1.
Yalavarthi Sai
Scorecard Congratulate
Puli Siva Reddy
Scorecard Congratulate
Yandamuri Akshay
Scorecard Congratulate
Employability Aptitude Test - 2023 Batch - 2
Total participants: 1,819 candidates
Highest Score: 60.00
National Median: 27.00
National Average: 25.18
Share your experience, learnings . . .
Lovely Professional University
Jalandhar
Rank: 1
Participant: 1544
GITAM University
Hyderabad
Rank: 2
Participant: 275
National Rank of Your College: 1
Top Score in your college: 60
Average Score in your college: 26.14
Participants from your college: 1544
Tatikonda Sai Murahari
Lovely Professional University
Score Card
Section Correct Wrong Marks
English Usage 12 X 1 6 X 0 12.00
Numerical Ability 0 X 1 2 X 0 0.00
Analytical Reasoning 4 X 1 2 X 0 4.00
View answer sheet
All India Rank: 35025
All India Percentile: 8
Score: 16
Time taken on average/question: 2 mins 18 sec
Total time taken: 59 mins 57 sec
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2.
Yalavarthi Sai
Branch: Computer Science Engineering
Puli Siva Reddy
Branch: Computer Science Engineering
Yandamuri Akshay
Branch: Computer Science Engineering
Questions in Section: 20
Section Score: 12
Congratulations. This score would help you clear cut-off for most IT
companies in this section. Keep practicing to ensure that your score
does not drop.
Q.1 Which part of the sentence given below has an error in it?
The board made the necessary / amendments in the standard operating procedure / on the company in order to
improve / the quality of work.
A the board made the necessary
B amendments in the standard operating procedure
C on the company in order to improve
D the quality of work
97% participants attempted this question and 61% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.2 Choose the best replacement for the underlined part of the sentence.
The people of the village had high hopes for the new sarpanch to elect as he was very young and dynamic.
A elected
B to be elect
C for electing
D in electing
98% participants attempted this question and 53% answered correctly.
0
Useful?
A You
Ohhh, you didn't get this one. Discuss your approach and clear your doubt . . . Post
Performance with time
Your College's Top Performers
Score
No.
of
Students
Marks distribution
Students You are here
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
0
250
500
750
1,000
Section: English Usage
Time (min)
Section
Score
Section Performance
0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 60
0
5
10
15

3.
Q.3 Choose the option which best expresses the given sentence in Passive voice.
The police were interrogating the culprit.
A The culprit were interrogated by the police.
B The culprit is been interrogated by the police.
C The culprit was interrogated by the police.
D The culprit was being interrogated by the police.
98% participants attempted this question and 70% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.4 Fill in the blank with the most suitable option:
The chairman ordered the staff to immediately evacuate the building that was _________ fire.
A on
B in
C a
D the
98% participants attempted this question and 84% answered correctly.
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A
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Q.5 Fill in the blanks with the most suitable option:
The Tsunami that came in 2011 had a huge impact _________ the minds of local people who rely _________ the
sea for their living.
A on, in
B on, on
C in, on
D on, a
98% participants attempted this question and 65% answered correctly.
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Q.6 Fill in the blanks with the most suitable option:
_________ international waters do not allow any person _________ pass without prior approval from the authority.
A The, on
B A, on
C The, to
D A, to
98% participants attempted this question and 89% answered correctly.
0
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4.
A
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Q.7 Fill in the blank with the most suitable option:
I was _________ the meal when he entered and tried to threaten me.
A being prepared
B prepared
C None of the mentioned options
D preparing
98% participants attempted this question and 87% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.8 Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined word given below:
PUZZLE
A amaze
B pose
C enlighten
D assist
98% participants attempted this question and 54% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.9 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word given below:
HANDWRITTEN
A cameo
B imprinted
C reported
D manuscript
98% participants attempted this question and 70% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.10 Fill in the blank with an appropriate option in the given sentence:
After my tenure as the chairman of the club, I felt _________ from the social club.
A enthusiastic
B helpless
C alienated
0
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5.
D motivated
98% participants attempted this question and 54% answered correctly.
A
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Q.11 Fill in the blank with an appropriate option in the given sentence:
The dog in my locality was brutally _________ as a pet and had undergone a lot of mental and physical trauma.
A attacked
B treated
C carried
D abused
98% participants attempted this question and 53% answered correctly.
0
Useful?
A
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Q.12 Fill in the blank with an appropriate option in the given sentence:
The municipality decided to _________ the age-old building that was once a religion court of the town.
A demolish
B rearrange
C rework
D wreck
98% participants attempted this question and 70% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.13 Mark the option containing the correct meaning of the underlined phrase/idiom given below.
Kill two birds with one stone - was the advice given to me by my master.
A Hit the bull's eye
B Accomplish two things with the same effort
C Attack before the opposite person
D Strategize before every step
97% participants attempted this question and 83% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.14 Choose the correct sequence of the given words/phrases so that it forms a logical sentence.
1. worn out and was causing a
2. the narrow bridge
0
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6.
3. lot of problems while crossing
4. the scooter was old, mechanically
A 4132
B 3412
C 4321
D 4123
97% participants attempted this question and 82% answered correctly.
A
Discuss your solution to this question . . .
P. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Autism spectrum disorders (ASD) are a range of psychological conditions characterized by abnormalities in social interaction, behavior, interests,
and communication. The five forms of ASD include classical autism, Asperger syndrome, Pervasive Developmental Disorder, Rett syndrome, and
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder. Although the number of reported cases of ASD has experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years, the
majority of doctors agree that this increase is due to changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health.
While there is no general consensus among medical professionals about the underlying causes of ASD, theories range from genetic inheritance to
environmental factors. One of the most controversial theories to have emerged in recent times is the hypothesis that ASD could be caused by
the MMR vaccine, which is an immunization against measles, mumps, and rubella that was first developed in the 1960's. The vaccine is a
_________ of three live viruses and is administered via injection to children when they are one year old.
By the late 1990's, this vaccination had led to the near-eradication of measles in countries that employed widespread inoculation. However, a
combination of spurious scientific data and alarmist media attention led to an entirely preventable resurgence in measles cases in the early 21st
century. The first claims of a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism were made in 1998, when an article in The Lancet, a respected
British medical journal, reported on eight cases of autism that could possibly be traced back to the administration of an MMR vaccine.
Q.15 State whether the following statement is true or false.
A general consensus among medical professionals underlines the causes of ASD state that it is caused by the MMR
vaccine.
A TRUE
B FALSE
C Cannot be determined
97% participants attempted this question and 32% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.16 Which of the following options best fits the blank given in the passage?
A opposite
B mixture
C result
D equation
97% participants attempted this question and 62% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.17 What is the role of the last paragraph in the given passage?
A It introduces an idea.
0
Useful?

7.
B It builds on a previous idea.
C It counters a previous point to show contrast.
D It sums up the main idea of the paragraph.
96% participants attempted this question and 27% answered correctly.
A
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P. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The biggest house of cards, the longest tongue, and of course, the tallest man: these are among the thousands of records logged in the famous
Guinness Book of Records. Created in 1955 after a debate concerning Europe's fastest game bird, what began as a marketing tool sold to pub
landlords to promote Guinness, an Irish drink, became the bestselling copyright title of all time (a category that excludes books such as the Bible
and the Koran). In time, the book would sell 120 million copies in over 100 countries— quite a leap from its humble beginnings. In its early years,
the book set its sights on satisfying man's innate curiosity about the natural world around him. Its two principal fact finders, twins Norris and
Ross McWhirter, scoured the globe to collect empirical facts. It was their task to find and document aspects of life that can be sensed or
observed, things that can be quantified or measured. But not just any things.
They were only interested in superlatives: the biggest and the best. It was during this period that some of the hallmark Guinness Records were
documented, answering such questions as "What is the brightest star?" and "What is the biggest spider?" Once aware of the public's thirst for
such knowledge, the book's authors began to branch out to cover increasingly obscure, little known facts. They started documenting human
achievements as well. A forerunner for reality television, the Guinness Book gave people a chance to become famous for accomplishing eccentric,
often pointless tasks.
Q.18 The passage is most likely an excerpt from:
A Newspaper Article
B Geographic Magazine
C Magazine Cover
D Advertising Magazine
96% participants attempted this question and 23% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.19 Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the word "empirical" given in the passage?
A experimental
B moderate
C preliminary
D momentary
97% participants attempted this question and 65% answered correctly.
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A
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Q.20 The tone of the passage is:
A Indigent
B Euphemistic
C Sceptical
D Laudatory
0
Useful?

8.
94% participants attempted this question and 41% answered correctly.
A
Discuss your solution to this question . . .
Questions in Section: 20
Section Score: 0
Your score in this section is less than the cut-off used by most IT
companies. We would recommend that you take training to improve
skills in this section.
Q.21 How many different pairs of a and b exist such that 2a
+ 3b
< 50?
A 14
B 10
C 13
D 16
91% participants attempted this question and 26% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.22 If a and b are solutions of equation x2
+ 3x - 9 = 0 then what is the value of (a - b)2
?
A 45
B -27
C 36
D -45
93% participants attempted this question and 35% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.23 If two lines 2y - 3x = 9 and 3y - 2x = -14 intersect at a point (a, b) then what is the difference between a and b?
A 0
B -18
C 18
D 9
90% participants attempted this question and 22% answered correctly.
0
Useful?
A
Section: Numerical Ability
Time (min)
Section
Score
Section Performance
0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 60
0
0.25
0.5
0.75
1
1.25

9.
Discuss your solution to this question . . .
Q.24 If 2x + 3y - 4z = 18 and 3x - 4y + 2z = 9 then find the value of 8x - 5y.
A 36
B 27
C 18
D 45
92% participants attempted this question and 51% answered correctly.
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A
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Q.25 Read the information given below carefully and answer the question that follows.
P(m, n) = 3m
- 2n
Q(m, n) = m2
- n2
R(m, n) = (m + n)/2
Find the value of P(4, 2) - R(8, 16) + Q( 2, 3).
A 70
B 60
C 84
D 94
94% participants attempted this question and 49% answered correctly.
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A
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Q.26 Read the information given below carefully and answer the question that follows.
A(m, n) = m! + (n2
)!
B(m, n) = (m + n)3
C(m, n) = m3
- n3
Find the value of A(6, 2) - B(6, -3) - C(4 , 3).
A 680
B 774
C 794
D 848
93% participants attempted this question and 54% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.27 A solid circular cylinder of radius 7 cm and height of 21 cm is converted into nine solid circular cones of radius 7 cm.
What is the curved surface area of a solid circular cone?
A 217.79 cm2
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10.
B 154 cm2
C 271.79 cm2
D 308 cm2
91% participants attempted this question and 34% answered correctly.
A
Discuss your solution to this question . . .
Q.28 What is the area of a 3 m wide road around a rectangular park of length 140 m and width 120 m?
A 1596 m2
B 1560 m2
C 780 m2
D 1696 m2
95% participants attempted this question and 49% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.29 Find the remainder when 610
+ 6100
is divided by 21.
A 9
B 2
C 12
D 8
91% participants attempted this question and 28% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.30 What is the remainder when the sum of factorials of 1 to 32 is divided by 18?
A 10
B 16
C 9
D 8
91% participants attempted this question and 39% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.31 What is the index of the greatest power of 3 in 51! + 52! + 53! + ….......... + 100!?
A 23
B 21
C 22
0
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11.
D 24
90% participants attempted this question and 22% answered correctly.
A
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Q.32 24% of 250 + 32% of 150 - 20% of 170 = ?
A 74
B 108
C 142
D 94
95% participants attempted this question and 69% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.33 Samuel's monthly salary is increased by 25% this year. His expenditure on rent is $1800 per month. Of the remaining,
he spends 12% on maintenance and finally the expenditure on the miscellaneous items is $2400 this year. Find his
monthly savings in the current year if the total expenditure of the current year is 40% of the monthly salary of the
previous year.
A $14280
B $10080
C $13420
D $12460
87% participants attempted this question and 22% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.34 In a bike showroom, there are bikes in three different colours orange, blue, and yellow. The probabilities of selecting
one orange bike and one blue bike are 4/15 and 1/3 respectively. The number of yellow bikes is twelve. What is the
probability of choosing two yellow bikes at a time?
A 22/145
B 11/145
C 11/29
D 12/145
89% participants attempted this question and 32% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.35 An integer 'm' is chosen at random from the set of the first 60 natural numbers. If P is a probability of '(m - 2)(m - 4)'
and is divisible by 4 and Q is a probability of '(m - 3)(m + 3)' and is divisible by 5 then what is the ratio of P and Q?
(Given that m - 2, m - 4 and m - 3 is not negative)
A 7/6
B 6/7
0
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12.
C 6/4
D 5/7
88% participants attempted this question and 24% answered correctly.
A
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Q.36 P and Q can do a work alone in 16 and 24 days respectively. P, Q and R complete 50% of work in 4 days. Then in how
many days Q and R together can complete the remaining work?
A 8 days
B 6 days
C 12 days
D 9 days
92% participants attempted this question and 36% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.37 Tap A and B together can fill a tank in 8 hours. If tap C whose discharge is 6 litres per minute can empty that tank in
18 hours then what is the time required to fill the tank if all three taps are open?
A 14.4 hours
B 7.2 hours
C 10.8 hours
D 18 hours
91% participants attempted this question and 41% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.38 Four men and three women can do a work together in 16 days, while three men and four women can do that work in 18
days. If an adult is as efficient as a woman then in how many days one man, three women and three adults can do that
work together?
A 24 days
B 20 days
C 15 days
D 28 days
90% participants attempted this question and 35% answered correctly.
0
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A
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P. Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.

13.
Q.39 If the family's income is $43,200 and their savings are 80% of the expenditure, then how much is its annual
expenditure on education?
A $2880
B $4800
C $2520
D $5400
92% participants attempted this question and 31% answered correctly.
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Q.40 How much more money per month is spent by the family on food as compared to the entertainment, if total
expenditure of the family is $27,000?
A $315
B $345
C $280
D $360
91% participants attempted this question and 32% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Questions in Section: 20
Section Score: 4
Your score in this section is less than the cut-off used by most IT
companies. We would recommend that you take training to improve
skills in this section.
Q.41 If in a certain code language, "GUIDE" is coded as "JWJFH", then how would "RADIO" be coded in the same code
language?
A UCEKR
0
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Section: Analytical Reasoning
Time (min)
Section
Score
Section Performance
0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 60
0
1
2
3
4
5

14.
B UCEFR
C VCDKR
D UDEKQ
94% participants attempted this question and 69% answered correctly.
A
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Q.42 Find the missing term in the series given below:
41, 47, 50, 59, 59, ?
A 71
B 68
C 62
D 77
93% participants attempted this question and 46% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.43 The question given below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Determine if the statements are, individually
or together, sufficient to answer the question.
Question: What is the speed of the train?
Statements:
I. The train crosses a 320 m bridge in 10 sec.
II. The length of the train is 100 m
A
Only one of the statements, alone, is sufficient to answer the question but other statement is
not
B
Both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question asked but neither
statement alone is sufficient
C Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question
D
Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data
to the problem is needed
93% participants attempted this question and 11% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.44 The question given below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Determine if the statements are, individually
or together, sufficient to answer the question.
Question: What is the value of x?
Statements:
I. If x is added in numerator and denominator then 4/7 becomes 7/4.
II. x is a multiple of 4.
A
Only one of the statements, alone, is sufficient to answer the question but other statement is
not
B Both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question asked but neither
statement alone is sufficient
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C Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question
D
Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data
to the problem is needed
93% participants attempted this question and 41% answered correctly.
A
Discuss your solution to this question . . .
Q.45 The question given below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Determine if the statements are, individually
or together, sufficient to answer the question.
Question: In how many days can 4 women and 4 men do a work?
Statements:
I. 8 men and 6 women can do a work in 20 days.
II. 10 men can do the same work in 40 days.
A
Only one of the statements, alone, is sufficient to answer the question but other statement is
not
B
Both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question asked but neither
statement alone is sufficient
C Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question
D
Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data
to the problem is needed
92% participants attempted this question and 15% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.46 The question given below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Determine if the statements are, individually
or together, sufficient to answer the question.
Question: Is the length of the rectangle greater than 12 m?
Statements:
I. If the length is subtracted by 2 m and the width is increased by 2 m, it becomes a square.
II. The area of the rectangle is 96 m2.
A
Only one of the statements, alone, is sufficient to answer the question but other statement is
not
B
Both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question asked but neither
statement alone is sufficient
C Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question
D
Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data
to the problem is needed
92% participants attempted this question and 15% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.47 Mark the odd one out from the given options.
A (4, 185, 13)
B (9, 370, 17)
0
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16.
C (8, 505, 21)
D (11, 467, 15)
89% participants attempted this question and 43% answered correctly.
A
Discuss your solution to this question . . .
Q.48 The statements given below are followed by three conclusions. Assume the statements are true, even if they
contradict commonly known facts, and determine the conclusion/s that follow/s from the statements logically.
Statements:
I. No bike is a car.
II. Some bikes are trucks.
III. All trucks are trains.
Conclusions:
I. Some bikes are trains.
II. No car is a train.
III. Some cars are trucks.
A Only conclusion I follows
B Only conclusion II follows
C Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
D None follow
94% participants attempted this question and 49% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.49 The statements given below are followed by two conclusions. Assume the statements are true, even if they contradict
commonly known facts, and determine the conclusion/s that follow/s from the statements logically.
Statements:
P < Q ≤ T > R
T ≥ G > H < C
Conclusions:
I. C ≤ Q
II. H < T
A Only conclusion I follows
B Only conclusion II follows
C Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
D Neither conclusion I or conclusion II follows
91% participants attempted this question and 39% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.50 The statements given below are followed by three conclusions. Assume the statements are true, even if they
contradict commonly known facts, and determine the conclusion/s that follow/s from the statements logically.
Statements:
I. Some dogs are wolves.
II. Some wolves are cats.
III. All dogs are lions.
0
Useful?

17.
IV. Some cats are tigers.
Conclusions:
I. No tiger is a lion.
II. Some lions are wolves.
III. Some cats are wolves.
A Only conclusion I follows
B Only conclusion II follows
C Both conclusion II and conclusion III follow
D None follow
94% participants attempted this question and 66% answered correctly.
A
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Q.51 In the following question, the symbols @, !!, *, ? and # are used with the following meanings illustrated.
U * Y means 'U is neither greater than nor lesser than Y'.
U !! Y means 'U is neither lesser than nor equal to Y'.
U # Y means 'U is neither greater than nor equal to Y'.
U @ Y means 'U is not greater than Y'.
U ? Y means 'U is not lesser than Y'.
Now assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the given conclusions given below them is/are definitely
true and give your answer accordingly.
Statements:
I. R ? E
II. K !! E
III. H @ K
IV. W # R
Conclusions:
I. E !! W
II. R * H
III. W # K
A Only conclusion I and conclusion II follow
B Only conclusion III follows
C Only conclusion II and conclusion III follow
D None follow
88% participants attempted this question and 19% answered correctly.
0
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A
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Q.52 Mark the option that most logically completes the following sequence.
A
0
Useful?

18.
B
C
D
94% participants attempted this question and 16% answered correctly.
A
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Q.53 Mark the option that most logically completes the following sequence.
A
B
C
D
0
Useful?

19.
94% participants attempted this question and 57% answered correctly.
A
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P. Study the flow given in the following diagram and answer the questions that follow.
Q.54 How many boxes have number greater than zero?
A 6
B 5
C 7
D 4
94% participants attempted this question and 50% answered correctly.
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Q.55 What is the sum of the number in Box 5 and the number in Box 10?
A 8
B -10
C 6
D -7
93% participants attempted this question and 53% answered correctly.
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A
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20.
Q.56 How many boxes have a number divisible by 3?
A 5
B 3
C 4
D 2
93% participants attempted this question and 42% answered correctly.
0
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A
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P. Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
Seven boxes K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q - are placed one above another, but not necessarily in the same order.
The following information is known about them:
(i) Box L is placed at either bottom-most or top-most position.
(ii) Box O is placed below Box K and only four boxes are placed above Box M.
(iii) The number of boxes placed between Box Q and Box K is two.
(iv) Box N is placed immediately above Box P.
(v) Box M is placed below Box O and P.
Q.57 How many boxes are placed between Box N and Box Q?
A 3
B 2
C 4
D 1
91% participants attempted this question and 42% answered correctly.
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Q.58 Which of the following boxes are immediate neighbours of Box O?
A Box K
B Box M
C Box Q
D Both Boxes K and M
91% participants attempted this question and 48% answered correctly.
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P. Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
Eight persons -Drake, Hannah, Jessica, Kraig, Lena, Noah, Oliver, and Peter live in eight different flats among P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W. They are
sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Not necessarily in the same order.
The following information is known about them:
(i) Jessica is sitting second to the right of Hannah who lives in flat W.
(ii) Persons who live in flat Q and U sit opposite each other.
(iii) Kraig lives in flat V and is third to the left of Noah.

21.
(iv) Noah lives in flat P and sits immediate left to Oliver.
(v) Peter is an immediate neighbour of Hannah and Jessica.
(vi) Person who lives in flat P is an immediate neighbour of the person who lives in flat Q.
(vii) Lena is sitting opposite Hannah.
(viii) Person who lives in flat R sits three places away from the person who lives in flat T.
Q.59 Who is sitting opposite Hannah?
A Lena
B Kraig
C Drake
D Oliver
90% participants attempted this question and 42% answered correctly.
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Q.60 Who among the following is the neighbour of the person who lives in flat U?
A Jessica
B Drake
C Noah
D Lena
88% participants attempted this question and 37% answered correctly.
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