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1. PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY-11
1. Which of the following of the contains dibenzoazepine nucleus?
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Imipramine
c. Haloperidol
d. Diazepam
2. Tofranil is a brand name of
a. Imipramine
b. Tolnaphthate
c. Carbamazepine
d. Verapamil
3. Which of the following contain pyridine diamine nucleus?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Mepyramine
d. Phenformin
4. Biperiden is
a. Antiadrenergic
b. Anticholinergic
c. Cholinergic agonist
d. Sympathomimetic
5. Pyridinium carboxamide is the chemical name of ……………….
a. Norephedrine
b. Coramine
c. Adernaline
d. Isoprenaline
6. Largactil is the marketed name of ……………
a. Diazepam
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Loperamide
7. Which of the following is an example for tranquillizer?
a. Haloperidol
b. Thiopental
c. Glutethimide
d. Amytryptilline
8. Pick the wrong statement from the following.
a. Epinephrine is a sympathetic hormone synthesized from adrenal medulla
b. It stimulates both alpha- and beta-adrenergic system
c. It causes constriction in bronchi through β2 receptor.
d. It cause gastric stimulation
9. Which is the precursor for the synthesis of catecholamines?
a. L-dopa
b. L-tyrosine
c. L-phenyl alanine
d. 5 hydroxy tryptamine
10. Catechol amines are metabolised by

2. a. Catechol-o-methyl transferase
b. Monoamine oxidase
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
11. ………………….. is a selective α-1 agonist.
a. Prazosin
b. Isoprotenerol
c. Methoxamine
d. Ephedrine
12. Clonidine is a α2 agonist which can be used against all the disease except
a. Migraine
b. Asthma
c. Glaucoma
d. Opioid withdrawal syndrome
13. Which of the following is used as a uterine relaxant to delay premature labour?
a. Salbutamol
b. Phenyl ephrine
c. Isoprotenerol
d. Methoxamine
14. Which of the following is wrong statement?
a. Ephedrine and pseudoephedrine are enantiomers
b. Ephedrine is a Erythro form isomer
c. Ephedrine is more potent than pseudoephedrine
d. Ephedrine has β2agonistic action.
15. ……………………. Is used for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma.
a. Phenoxybenzamine
b. Tolazoline
c. Tamulosin
d. Pilocarpine
16. Which of the following drug contain tetra hydro pyridine ring in the structure?
a. Arecoline
b. Pilocarpine
c. Methacholine
d. Pyridostigmine
17. Which of the following is Quaternary nitrogen compound?
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Physostigmine
c. Neostigmine
d. All the above
18. Which of the following is used for the diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis?
a. Edrophonium
b. Neostigmine
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Pralidoxime
19. Which of the following drug contain pyridine ring in the structure?
a. Pralidoxime
b. Neostigmine
c. Arecoline

3. d. Tolazoline
20. Which of the following is not obtained from natural source?
a. d-tubocurarine
b. Physostigmine
c. Arecoline
d. Homatropine
21. Which of the following is not an example of Anticholine esterase?
a. Donepezil
b. Rivastigmine
c. Gallantamine
d. Benztropine
22. What is the ratio of Trimethoprim : Sulphamethoxazole in the cotrimoxazole tablet.
a. 3:1
b. 5:1
c. 1:5
d. 1:3
23. Which one the following is an example for prodrug.
a. Sulphasalazine
b. Sulphadiazine
c. Sulphathiazole
d. Sulphaguanidine
24. Which one the following is used for UTI?
a. Sulphanilamide
b. Sulphaisoxazole
c. Sulphasalazine
d. Sulphacetamide
25. Which of the following drugs is used in intestinal infection?
a. Phthalyl sulphathiazole
b. Sulphametoxacine
c. Sulphamethoxazole
d. Cotrimoxazole
26. ……………….. is the general group for sulphonamides.
a. sulphonyl group
b. sulphomyl group
c. sulphanilide group
d. sulfhydril group
27. Which of the following enzyme is inhibited by Trimethoprim?
a. Dihydropteroate synthetase
b. Transpeptidase
c. DHRF
d. Tetrahydrofolate reductase
28. Which of the following ring is present in pyridostigmine?
a. Azepine
b. Azine
c. Imidazole
d. Pyrolidine

4. 29. Which amoung the drug do not have a sulphonyl group.
a. Dapsone
b. Tolbutamide
c. Acetazolamide
d. Tinidazole
30. Which of the following is an example for luminal trophozoitocidal agent?
a. Tinidazole
b. Iodoquinol
c. Diloxamide furoate
d. Emetine
31. Which is an antibiotic used as an amoebicidal agent?
a. Daunorubicin
b. Paramomycin
c. Rifamycin
d. Amphotericin B
32. Which of the following is not an example for prodrug?
a. Ramipril
b. Lisinopril
c. Enalapril
d. Benazepril
33. Which drug inhibit Na+-K+-2Cl transporter in thick ascending loop of Henle?
a. Bumetanide
b. Xipamide
c. Azetazolamide
d. Spironolactone
34. Which one of the following indirectly inhibit K+ secretion by inhibiting Sodium channel in DCT?
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c. Amiloride
d. Chlorthalidone
35. All are example for osmotic diuretic except
a. Ethacrynic acid
b. Glycerine
c. Isosorbide
d. Urea
36. Pentazocine is used as
a. Analgesic
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Anxiolytic
d. Local anaesthetic
37. Which of the following is true in case of quinidine?
a. Quinine and quinidine are optical isomer
b. Quinidine is cardiac depressant
c. Quinidine has quinoline and quinuclidine ring
d. Quinidine is indicated in malaria

5. 38. Which of the following drug contains Triazole ring?
a. Miconazole
b. Fluconazole
c. Itraconazole
d. Terconazole
39. Which of the following antifungal agent used only in superficial mycosis?
a. Itraconazole
b. Flucytosine
c. Miconazole
d. Ketoconazole
40. What is the source of antifungal antibiotic Nystatin?
a. S. nodosus
b. S. noursei
c. S. mediterranei
d. S.venezuele
41. Penicillin V is chemically…………
a. Benzathine penicillin
b. Phenoxy methyl Penicillin
c. Phenoxy Penicillin
d. Phenoxy Vinyl Penicillin
42. In Penicillin, the β-lactam ring is fused with……………….
a. Thiazolidine
b. Thiophene
c. Thiazine
d. Thiazole
43. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by…
a. Acetylation
b. Deamination
c. Oxidation
d. Conjugation
44. Which of the following is not a prodrug?
a. Proguanil
b. Sulfasalazine
c. spironolactone
d. Captopril
45. Clavunic acid has a beta-lactam ring fused with
a. Thienyl system
b. Thiadiazole
c. Thiazolidine
d. Oxazolidine
46. Proflavine will cause …………..
a. Alkylation of bacterial protein
b. Coagulation
c. Mutation of genetic material
d. Protein precipitation

6. 47. Penicillin produce bactericidal by inhibiting
a. Transglycolase
b. Transpeptidase
c. Transaminase
d. Tranferase
48. Which of the following drug is an inhibitor of DNA gyrase enzyme?
a. Rifabutin
b. Griseofulvin
c. Isoniazid
d. Nystatin
49. Give the correct statement in case of drug ciprofloxacin
a. Flurine is attached in 7th
carbon and piperazine in 5th
carbon
b. Flurine is attached in 5th
carbon and piperazine in 7th
carbon
c. Flurine is attached in 6th
carbon and piperazine in 7th
carbon
d. Flurine is attached in 5th
carbon and piperazine in 6th
carbon
50. Which of the following drug inhibit protein synthesis?
a. Carbenicillin
b. Dlarithromycin
c. Cefotaxime
d. Vancomycin
51. Quinacrine is a acridine derivative antimalarial drug which cause
a. Cyanosis
b. Yellowish pigmentation
c. Red green blindness
d. Orande red colour sweating and tear secretion
52. Which of the following drug is p-aminophenol derivative?
a. Diflunisal
b. Mefenamic acid
c. Phenacetin
d. Meclofenmate
53. Which of the following is an aryl alkanoic acid derivative?
a. Indomethacin
b. Phenyl butazone
c. Paracetamil
d. All the above
54. Which of the following is a imidazolidine dione drug?
a. Pilocarpine
b. Phenytoin
c. Metronidazole
d. Imipramine
55. Which of the following drug inhibit impair the biosynthesis of ergosterol which is an essential
component of cytoplasmic membrane?
a. Ketoconazole
b. Tinidazole
c. pyrimethamine
d. Ethionamide
56. Thiopental is
a. Short acting opioid derivative

7. b. Barbiturate derivative
c. Iminostillbine
d. Diaminopyrimidine
57. Which of the following drug is withdrawn from the market due to side effect ‘lactic acidosis’?
a. Venafexine
b. Analgin
c. Celecoxib
d. Phenformin
58. Which drug causes disruption of cell membrane and causing leakage of ions and small molecule?
a. Amphotericin
b. Griseofulvin
c. Bacitracin
d. Ethionamide
59. Which is the heterocyclic ring present in ethionamide?
a. Pyridine
b. Piperidine
c. Pyrrole
d. Pyrrolidine
60. Clofazimine is used as
a. Second line anti TB drug
b. Antiviral
c. Antileprotic
d. Antiameobic
61. Glutethimide contain
a. Piperidine dione
b. Pyramidine dione
c. Imidazoline dione
d. Pyrrolidine dione
62. The basic ring present in the marketed formulation ’largactil’ is
a. Acridine
b. Phenothiazine
c. Benzodiazepine
d. Dibenzoazepine
63. Which of the following drug inhibit dihydrofolate reductase?
a. Trimethoprim
b. Methotrexate
c. Busulphan
d. 5-flurouracil
64. Toxicity of the host cell due to administration of methotrexate can be minimized by
a. Leucovorin
b. Folic acid
c. Pyridoxine
d. Thiamine
65. 6-mercaptopurine is indicated in
a. Choriocarcinoma
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

8. 66. …………………. Is an example for anthracyclines.
a. Doxorubicin
b. Mitomycin
c. Bleomycin
d. Actinomycin
67. The compound with oxapenam ring is …………..
a. Salbactum
b. Tazobactum
c. Clavunic acid
d. All the above
68. The drug which bind to 50S ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis is …………
a. Tetracycline
b. Erythromycin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. All the above
69. Tetracyclines are characterized by common……………..
a. Tetrahydronaphthacene
b. octahydronaphthacene
c. saturated naphthacene
d. tetranaphthaquinone
70. Picromycin is a type of
a. Aminoglycoside
b. Macrolides
c. beta lactam
d. fluroquinalones
71. Which of the drug is an example for dibenzpyrazine
a. Trimethoprim
b. Thiambutosin
c. Clofazimine
d. Pyrazinamide
72. Which one the following drug is not used in DOTS therapy?
a. INH
b. Ethambutol
c. Ofloxacin
d. Pyrazinamide
73. The basic nucleus present in Trimethoprim is …………..
a. 4- aminopyridine
b. Benzopyridine
c. 2,4-diaminopyramidine
d. Biguanide
74. Which one of the following is a bacteriostatic
a. INH
b. Ethambutol
c. Ofloxacin
d. Pyrazinamide
75. Peripheral neuritis id ADR for …………

9. a. Pyridoxine
b. Isoniazid
c. Rifampicin
d. Ethionamide