first quarterly assessment in science,tle,science 8 2023.docx

Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
MIMAROPA REGION
SCHOOLS DIVISION OF ORIENTAL MINDORO
First Quarterly Examination
Science 10
Name: ____________________________________________________________________ Section: _________________________
Teacher: __________________________________________________________________ Date: _________Score: ____________
Directions: Shade the circle that corresponds to the letter of the correct answer.
ABCD
OOOO1. If an earthquake begins while you are in a building, the safest thing for you to do is ______.
A. call home C. get under the strongest table, chair, or other pieces of furniture
B. duck near a wall D. lie flat on the floor and cover your head with your hands
OOOO2. Why is it important to be aware of places prone to earthquakes?
A. to identify what crop must be stored C. to locate where to the next quake will occur
B. to identify what relief goods to be prepared D. to perform necessary precautions
OOOO3. All of these are wise practices during an earthquake EXCEPT_______.
A. cover your head C. park your car
B. duck under the table D. run to a tall tree
OOOO4. Tsunami comes when you suddenly observe the ocean water moving away from the beach. To save yourself from
this calamity, you MUST ______.
A. call the police C. stay in the middle of the beach
B. run to the nearest hill or mountain D. take the time to pick up seashells
OOOO5. What can be the WORST and irreversible effect of negligence or failure to prepare for natural geologic disasters?
A. damage to properties B. death C. disease D. poverty
OOOO6. Which theory states that the entire crust is broken and is continuously moving?
A. Continental Drift B. Plate Tectonics C. Seafloor Spreading D. Plate Tectonics
OOOO7.What do we call the continuously moving part of the earth’s crust?
A. fault B. fissure C. fracture D. plate
OOOO8.Which of these phrases is FALSE about lithospheric plates?
A. have the same thickness everywhere C. thickest in the mountain regions
B. include the crust and upper mantle D. vary in thickness
OOOO9.A landmass that projects well above its surroundings is a mountain. What do you call a chain of mountains?
A. mountain arc B. mountain chain C. mountain range D. mountainous
OOOO10.Plates float on the surface of the mantle. Which plate pushes the Philippine Plate toward the Eurasian Plate?
A. Cocos Plate B. Indo-Australian Plate C. Nazca Plate D. Pacific Plate
OOOO11.What should you NOT DO during an earthquake?
A. cover your head B. duck under the table C. park your car D. run to a tall tree
OOOO12.Which is NOT TRUE about the location of the epicenter of earthquakes?
A. Some are located along the edges of the continents. C. Some are located in North Asia.
B. Some are located in mid-continents. D. Some are located in oceans
OOOO13.Why is it important to be aware of places prone to earthquakes?
A. to identify what crop must be stored C. to locate where to stay best
D. to perform necessary precautions B. to identify when to evacuate
OOOO14.where are most volcanoes situated?
A. along fault lines C. near mountain ranges
B. concentrated on continental edges D. under the oceanic crust
OOOO15.Which famous Philippine volcano is usually seen in world maps due to its violent eruption in 1991?
A. Bulusan B. Kanlaon C. Mayon D. Pinatubo
OOOO16. Based on geological hazard maps, what is the safest place in the country due to its very low risk in geologic disasters?
A. Batanes B. Isabela C. Palawan D. Romblon
OOOO17. How do you describe the locations of earthquake epicenters, mountain rangers, and moving plates in the Pacific Ring
of Fire? They are _
A. all over the place C. located in the same location
B. concentrated in one area D. strategically plotted in clusters
OOOO18. When you see that the ocean water is receding (disappearing) away from the beach, you MUST
A. call the police C. stay in the middle of the beach
B. run to the nearest hill or mountain D. take the time to pick up seashells
OOOO19. What do you think is the basis of scientists in dividing Earth’s lithosphere into several plates?
A. brightness of stars and formation of constellations in the sky
B. a cycle of high and low tides during full moon
C. the occurrence of earthquake, volcanism and mountain formation
D. the uneven distribution of heat in the globe
OOOO20.How will you relate the distributions of mountain ranges, earthquake epicenters and volcanoes?
A. Mountain ranges are found in places between where volcanoes and earthquake epicenters are also situated.
B. Mountain ranges are found in places where volcanoes and/or earthquake epicenters are also situated.
C. Mountain ranges are found only in places where earthquake epicenters are Mountain ranges are found only in places
where volcanoes are situated.

OOOO21.Convection current causes the lithospheric plate to ________________.
A. move slowly but constantly B. move in any direction C. move faster D. create another plate
OOOO22. Hot molten materials in a convection cell rises near the ______________.
A. outer core B. crust C. inner core D. mantle
OOOO23. The youngest part of the ocean floor is found at the ___________.
A. convergent boundary C. transform-fault
B. divergent boundary D. hot spot
OOOO24. What type of plate boundary occurs between the Nazca Plate and the South American Plate?
A. convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary C. convergent continental-continental plate boundary
B. convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary D. transform boundary
OOOO25. The crust and upper mantle make up the Earth’s ____________.
A. lithosphere B. asthenosphere C. core D. continents
OOOO26The result of plate movement can be seen at _________.
A. abyssal plains B. plate boundaries C. plate centers D. ocean margin
OOOO27.The theory that suggests that plates are slowly moving is called ___________.
A. Magnetic Reversal B. Plate Tectonic C. Continental Slope D. Continental Drift
OOOO28.Plates move apart at __________ boundaries.
A. convergent B. stable C. divergent D. transform plate
OOOO29. Plates slipping past each other at ________________.
A. subduction zone B. convection current C. divergent boundary D. transform boundary
OOOO30.The boundary between two plates moving together is called a __________.
A. divergent boundary B. transform boundary C. lithosphere D. convergent boundary
OOOO31. Based on the current position of the continents, South America is moving away from Africa in what direction?
A. West B. East C. North D. South
OOOO32. At the convergent plate boundary, _______________.
A. new crust is created C. the crust separates
B. the older crust is melted by subduction D. plates side past one another
OOOO33. The East African Rift is an example of a _____________.
A. mid-ocean ridge B. convergent boundary C. divergent boundary D. transform boundary
OOOO34. The Himalayan mountain range of India was formed at the __________.
A. divergent boundary B. convergent boundary C. hot spot D. transform boundary
OOOO35.Philippine plate moves toward ___________.
A. Australian plate B. Mountain ranges C. Trenches D. Eurasian plate
OOOO36. The __________ is an example of a transform fault boundary.
A. East Pacific Rise B. San Andreas Fault C. Mid-Atlantic Ridge D. Himalayas
OOOO37. There is no formation of volcanoes in the convergence between.
A. two oceanic plates C. oceanic and continental plates
B. two continental plates D. none of these
OOOO38. When a plate is denser, it subducts toward the mantle and forms magma. This process ends up in the formation of ______.
A. mountain range B. trenches C. volcanoes D. faults
OOOO39. Shallow earthquakes are associated with __________.
A. volcanic eruption B. subduction process C. a tsunami in the ocean D. mountain formation
OOOO40. In the convergence between a continental and an oceanic plate, there is subduction. Which of the following statements
does not support this fact?
A. One plate carries water along with it. C. The temperature in the mantle is higher than in the crust.
B. One plate is denser. D. One plate overrides the other.
OOOO41. Which of the following is formed in the convergence of two oceanic or oceanic and continental plates?
A. Volcanic island arcs B. mountain range C. rift valley D. Oceanic ridge
OOOO42. Which of the following, which event or process takes place when two continental plates converge?
A. earthquake B. subduction C. tsunami D. magma formation
OOOO43. A crack on the ground underwater is produced when oceanic crust interacts with another crust. What do we call this?
A. fault B. trench C. ridge D. crack
OOOO44. It is a phenomenon that takes place due to the movement of plates during convergence.
A. earthquake B. magma formation C. subduction D. tsunami
OOOO45. It is the crack on the dry ground or plate caused by horizontal plate movement.
A. fault B. trench C. valley D. ridge
OOOO46. An event that may take place on the water surface when a great force pushes a significant amount of water upwards.
A. ocean wave B. typhoon C. tsunami D. ocean tide
OOOO47. Subduction is illustrated in which of the following?
A. convergent plate boundary C. divergent plate boundary
B. transform fault boundary D. subducting plate
OOOO48. A convection current is caused by differences in temperature resulting to variation in ___________.
A. air pressure B. color C. d ensity D. mass
OOOO49.Scientists believe that the motion of tectonic plates is caused by ______________.
A. pressure in Earth’s crust B. conveyor belts C. convection currents D. heat in the Earth’s core
OOOO50.It is a measure of how much mass there is in a volume of a substance.
A. volume B. temperature C. density D. mass
If you need wisdom, ask our generous God, and he will give it to you. He will not rebuke you for asking. -John 1:5
“God Bless You”
Prepared by: Jane Anson V. Mendoza Checked and Noted by: Aaron V. Villaruel
Teacher III Teacher-in-Charge

MIMAROPA REGION
Science 8
Name: ____________________________________________________________________ Section: _________________________
ABCD
OOOO1. An object is pulled to the left by a force of 50 N. The same amount of force pulls it to the right. The object will _________.
A. say at rest B. accelerate to the right
C. accelerate to the left D. change its direction
OOOO2. A 200-N woman is standing on a concrete floor. How much force does the floor exert on her?
A. zero B. 180 C. 200 N D. 300 N
OOOO3. A 50-kg object is acted upon by a net force of 360 N. How much does it accelerate?
A. 3.6 m/s2 B. 7.2 m/s2 C. 9.8 m/s2 D. 19.6 m/s2
OOOO4. A horizontal force of 8 N is applied to a 2-kg object resting on a frictionless table. How much will the object accelerate?
A. 0.25 m/s2 B. 4.0 m/s2 C. 8.0 m/s2 D. 12 m/s2
OOOO5. In the absence of an external force, a moving object will ____________
A. stop immediately B. go faster and faste C. move with constant velocity D. slow down and eventually stop
OOOO6. How much force is required to accelerate a car with a mass of 2000 kg to 3 m/s2 ?
A. 600 N B. 667 N C. 6 000 N D. 6000 kg.m/s
OOOO7. Which law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction?
A. Law of Inertia B. Law of Acceleration C. Law of Interaction D. Law of Gravitation
OOOO8. Which of the following equations describe the 2nd law of motion?
A. m = F x a B. W= F x d C. F= m x a D. P = W x t
OOOO9. Which of the following is the unit of force?
A. kg.m/s B. kg/m/s2 C. Newton D. Joule
OOOO10. If the same net force acts on an object, what happens to its acceleration as its mass increases?
A. decreases B. increases C. stays the same D. cannot be determined
OOOO11. What will happen to a moving object if there are no external forces acting on it?
A. It will stop immediately. C. It will move with constant velocity.
B. It will go faster and faster. D. It will slow down and eventually come to a stop.
OOOO12. Which of the following is the unit of acceleration?
A. m/s2 B. m/s C. Newton D. Joule
OOOO13. A 25-kg object is acted upon by a net force of 300 N. How much does it accelerate?
A. 4.5 m/s2 B. 7.0 m/s2 C. 12 m/s2 D. 15.6 m/s2
OOOO14. If force is held constant, what happens to acceleration as the mass increases?
A. decreases B. increases C. stays the same D. cannot be determined
OOOO15. A horizontal force of 10 N is applied to a 1-kg object resting on a frictionless table. How much will the object accelerate?
A. 3.25 m/s2 B. 6.0 m/s C. 9.0 m/s2 D. 10 m/s2
OOOO16. A man standing on the ground weighs 50 N, how much force is exerted by the ground?
A. 10 N B. 15 N C. 40 N D. 50 N
OOOO17. How much force is required to accelerate a car with a mass of 500 kg to 50 m/s2 ?
A. 10 N B. 6 000 C. 25 000 N D. 30 000 N
OOOO18. A 150-N woman is sitting on the chair. How much force does the chair exert on her?
A. zero B. 150 N C. 200 N D. undetermined
OOOO19. Which of the following equations describe the 2nd law of motion?
A. m = F x a B. W= F x d C. F= m x a D. P = W x t
OOOO20. The third law of motion states that for every action, there is ____ and ____reaction
A. an equal and opposite B. an equal and the same C. less than and the same D. greater than and opposite
OOOO21. Which force would cause an object to fall?
A. friction B. net force C. gravitational force D. centripetal force
OOOO22. A boy and a girl are pulling a heavy box at the same time with 5 units of force each. What is the net force acting on
the object?
A.5 units B. 10 units C.15 units D. zero
OOOO23. If the sum of the forces equates to zero, they are considered as
A .net force B. combined C. unbalanced D. balanced
OOOO24. The forces would cause a change in a body’s state of motion.
A. balanced B. combined C. unbalanced D. gravitational
OOOO25. It refers to the size or strength of the force.
A. friction B. direction C. magnitude D. gravitation
OOOO26. An object will remain at rest when the forces acting on it are .
A. equal in magnitude and in opposite direction C. not equal in magnitude and in opposite direction
B. equal in magnitude and the same direction. D. not equal in magnitude and the same direction
OOOO27. It is a force that acts between surfaces that are in contact with one another.
A. friction B. normal force C. gravitational force D. tension force

OOOO28 .It is the straight line passing through the point of application.
A. direction of the force B. line of action C. magnitude D. point of application
OOOO29. It is referred to as the push or pull.
A. acceleration B. force C. magnitude D. velocity
OOOO30. When you are on a ride that goes in a circle, you feel pushed or pulled in a circular motion. It happens because of ____.
A. centripetal force B. centrifugal force C. tension force D. friction
OOOO31. How does unbalanced forces affect the motion of an object?
A. It can cause no changes in speed. C. It can stop the object from moving
B. It can cause no changes in direction. D. It can cause resting object to move.
OOOO32. Which of the following forces below are acting on an object moving at constant speed in same direction?
A. balanced forces B. combined forces C. unbalanced forces D. centripetal force
OOOO33. What force remains constant in uniform circular motion?
A. balanced forces B. combined forces C. centripetal forces D. unbalanced forces
OOOO34. Which of the following refers to the overall force acting on an object?
A. net force B. unbalanced force C. balanced force D. tension force
OOOO35. Which forces are acting on a stuffed toy that is placed on top of a shelf?
A. friction and centripetal force C. tension force and force of gravity
B. normal force and force of gravity D. tension force and normal force
OOOO36. Which of the following are characteristics of circular motion?
A. speed of an object unchanged C. the direction of radius vector is constant
B. object moves along a circle D. magnitude of velocity is constant
OOOO37. Which of the following describes balanced forces?
A. a stick changing position C. a ping pong ball moving back and forth
B. a pen that dropped from a table D. 5 volumes of encyclopedia on top of a table
OOOO38. Which law of motion explains uniform circular motion?
A. Law of Inertia C. Law of Action and Reaction
B. Law of Interaction D. Law of Acceleration
OOOO39. What forces keep a roller coaster on the track?
A. tension and centripetal force C. friction and centripetal force
B. normal and centripetal force D. gravity and centripetal force
OOOO40.Which of the following objects exhibit uniform circular motion?
A. Ferries wheel B. car in parking lot C. badminton racket hanging D. bowling ball at rest
OOOO41. The following produce sound except?
A. Steel-in cabinet B. Water in the ocean C. Air in your classroom D. Cold air
OOOO42. Which of the following would not be the least transmitter of sound?
A. Steel-in cabinet B. Water in the ocean C. Air in your classroom D. Cold air
OOOO43. Reverberation does not occur when _________________.
A. the floor is carpeted. C. the windows are covered with curtains
B. the floor is smooth and shiny. D. both A and C
OOOO44. An echo occurs when ______________.
A. sound is reflected from a distant surface. C. the sound waves are very large.
B. sound is transmitted through a surface D. All of the above
OOOO45. What is the main reason why you can hear noises a long distance away over water at night?
A. There are fewer other noises at night. C. Water bounces off sound better at night
B. Water conducts sound better at night. D. Sound waves are bent towards the cool air over the water.
OOOO46. A sound wave is _______________ except;
A. Mechanical wave B. Longitudinal wave C. transverse D. wave pattern
OOOO47. Sound waves cannot travel in ______________.
A. vacuum B. solid C. liquid D. gas
OOOO48. Why a lot of people love to sing inside the bathroom except.__________.
A. because of privacy
B. because the bathroom creates an aurally pleasing acoustic environment
C. because of resonance
D. because the small dimension of the bathroom makes someone comfortable
OOOO49. The change in the change in speed of sound when it encounters a medium of different density is called______________.
A. echo B. vibration C. reverberation D. refracted sound
OOOO50. Which of the following quantities tells how hot or cold an object is with respect to some standard?
A. density B. mass C. pressure D. temperature
“God Bless You”

MIMAROPA REGION
TLE-CCOKERY 10
Name: ____________________________________________________________________ Section: _________________________
1. It is a small hand tool used generally in decorative works such as making garnishes.
A. bread knife C. channel knife
B. butcher knife D. paring knife
2. It is a perforated bowl of varying sizes made of stainless steel, aluminum or plastic used to drain, wash or cook ingredients from liquid.
A. Canister C. Mixing bowl
B. Colander D. Soup bowl
3. It is used for turning and lifting eggs, pan cakes and meats on griddles, grills, sheet pans, and the likes and also used to scrape and clean
griddles.
A. Measuring spoon C. Rubber scraper
B. Offset spatula D. Wooden spoon
4. It is used to scrape off all the contents of bowls and pans from the sides and fold in beaten eggs in batter or whipped cream.
A. Paring knife C. Wire whisk
B. Rubber spatula D. Wooden spoon
5. It is a screen – type mesh supported by a round metal frame used for sifting dry ingredients like starch and flour.
A. Colander C. Sieve
B. Funnel D. Skimmer
6. It is a device with loops of stainless steel wire fastened to a handle. It is used for blending, mixing, whipping eggs or batter, and for
blending gravies, sauces, and soups.
A. Fork C. Spoon
B. Knife D. Whisk
7. It is a miniature Bain Marie with an upper dish containing indentations each sized to hold an egg or contains separate device for poaching.
A. Egg Poacher C. Frying pan
B. Double boiler D. Omelet pan
8. It is a chamber or compartment used for cooking, baking, heating, or drying.
A. Blender C. Mixer
B. Burner D. Oven
9. It is the process of washing and sanitizing dishes, glassware, flatware, and pots and pans either manually or mechanically.
A. Bleaching C. Ware washing
B. Hand washing D. Washing machine
10. It requires a dishwashing machine capable of washing, rinsing, and drying dishes, flatware, and glassware.
A. Hand washing C. Mechanical ware washing
B. Manual ware washing D. Washing machine
11. It is the egg’s outer covering which accounts for about 9 to 12 % of its total weight depending on egg size.
A. Chalaza C. Shell
B. Germinal disc D. Yolk
12. This is the entrance of the latebra, the channel leading to the center of the yolk.
A. Chalaza C. Shell
13. It is the yellow to yellow - orange portion which makes up to about 33% of the liquid weight of the egg.
A. Chalaza C. Shell
14. A disease that is carried and transmitted to people by food is referred to as food borne ________________.
A. Bacteria C. Infection
B. Illness D Intoxication
15. It is a disease that results from eating food containing harmful micro-organism.
A. Food borne bacteria C. Food borne infection
B. Food borne illness D. Food borne intoxication
16. It is a disease that results from eating food containing toxins from bacteria, molds or certain plants or animals.
A. Food borne bacteria C. Food borne infection
B. Food borne illness D. Food borne intoxication
17. It is used for mixing creams, butter and for tossing salads.
A. Electric mixer C. Wire whisk
B. Serving spoon D. Wooden spoon
18. It is used for preparing meat, chicken, and other grains or legumes, such as mongo and white beans in lesser time.
A. Double boiler C. pressure cooker
B. Frying pan D. rice cooker
19. It is a long chainlike molecule, sometimes called the linear fraction, and is produced by linking together 500 to 2, 000 glucose molecules
which contributes to the gelling characteristics to cooked and cooled starch mixtures.
A. Amylopectin C. Dextrin
B. Amylose D. Mucin
20. This problem is usually encountered when using acid or acid ingredients such as lemon or vinegar.
A. Scorching C. Thinning of gel.
B. Skin formation D. Weak gelling
21. This results when there is too much liquid in relation to the starch.
ABCD

22. This problem can be reduced by covering the container of the starch gel with a waterproof cover.
23. This can be avoided by temperature control and constant stirring so the starch granules do not settle at the bottom of the cooking pan.
A. Scorching C. Thinning of Gel.
24. It can be stored in the refrigerator for 2 or 3 days.
A. Cooked pasta C. Fresh pasta
B. Dried pasta D. Frozen pasta
25. FIFO stands for ___________
A. Fan In Fan On C. First In First Out
B. First In Fight Out D. Fit In Fit Out
26. Beaten whole egg or yolk brushed into food items before baking will give it to a gloss or :
A. Glazed finished B. Glazed dull C. Dull finished D. Liquid in suspension finished
27. Sliced sieved or chopped hard-boiled egg can be used as ______________
A. Decoration B. Thickener C. Garnishing D. Leavening agent
28. Beaten egg yolks will coagulate and hold a liquid in suspension when heated is called_______________
A. Thickener B. Suspension C. Glazed D. Garnish
29. It is a perforated bowl of varying sizes made of stainless steel, aluminum or plastic used to drain, wash or cook
ingredients from liquid.
A. Canister B. Mixing bowl C. Colander D. Soup bowl
30. It is used for turning and lifting eggs, pan cakes and meats on griddles, grills, sheet pans, and the likes and also used
to scrape and clean griddles.
A. Measuring spoon B. Rubber scraper C. Offset spatula D. Wooden spoon
31. It is used to scrape off all the contents of bowls and pans from the sides and fold in beaten eggs in batter or whipped cream.
A. Paring knife B. Wire whisk C. Rubber spatula D. Wooden spoon
32. It is a screen – type mesh supported by a round metal frame used for sifting dry ingredients like starch and flour.
A. Colander B. Sieve C. Funnel D. Skimmer
33. It is a device with loops of stainless-steel wire fastened to a handle. It is used for blending, mixing, whipping eggs or
batter, and for blending gravies, sauces, and soups.
A. Fork B. Spoon C. Knife D. Whisk
34. It is a miniature Bain Marie with an upper dish containing indentations each sized to hold an egg or contains separate
device for poaching.
A. Egg Poacher B. Frying pan C. Double boiler D. Omelet pan
35. It is a chamber or compartment used for cooking, baking, heating, or drying.
A. Blender B. Mixer C. Burner D. Oven
36. The method of beating whole egg or yolk brushed onto food items before baking thus giving it a glossy finish.
A. Coating B. Garnishing C. Glazing D. Thickening
37. A Chinese cuisine made by preserving duck, chicken or quail eggs in a mixture of clay, ash, salt, quicklime and rice hulls
for several weeks or months.
A. Balut B. Century Eggs C. Deviled Eggs D. Pickled Eggs
38. An egg dish placed and cooked in a cup suspended in simmering liquid.
A. Coddled Eggs B. Omelette C. Poached Egg D. Scrambled Eggs
39. Typically hard-bo. iled eggs that are cured in a vinegar or brine.
A. Basted egg B. Pickled egg C. Scotch egg D. Shirred eggs
40. One of the culinary uses of egg is to remove the impurities and produce a clear finish of soups and stocks.
A. Aerating B. Binding C. Clarifying D. Garnishing
41. which of the following is not commonly used in adding height to a dish?
A. natural bone C. molded starches
B. cut vegetables D. cut fruits
42. When planning the overall design of a plate, which of the following should not be considered?
A. Arrangement C. cost
B. Color D. shape and height
43. Which of the following is the correct order in which people ‘’eat’’?
A. eyes ,nose ,mouth C. mouth, eyes, nose
B. nose, mouth, eyes D. nose, eyes, mouth
44. What are the two areas of food plating?
A. color and food C. shape and plate
B. food and height D. plate and foo
45. It is important to remember KIS when it comes to garnishingand plating. What does KIS stand for?
A. keep it saucy C. keep it super
B. keep it succulent D. keep it simple
46. It is recommended to use no more than how many colors when plating?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
47. Sauces should be;
A. thick and pastry C. dark and smooth
B. light and natural D. creamy and buttery
48. Which of the following is the process of arranging and decorating food.
A. food plating C. garnishes
B. sauce D. accompaniments
49. Which of the following tool is used for measuring dry and liquid ingredients .
A. measuring spoon C. tong
B. rubber scraper D. blending fork
50. A tool used to scrap extra mixtures of butter , sugar and egg from the sides of the mixture bowl.
A. measuring spoon C. tong
B. rubber scraper D. blending fork
“God Bless You”

MIMAROPA REGION
Second Quarterly Examination
Science 10
Name: ____________________________________________________________________ Section: _________________________
Directions: Choose to the letter of the correct answer.
ABCD
1. These are waves that are created as a result of vibrations between an
electric field and magnetic field.
a. electromagnetic spectrum b. electromagnetic wave
c. microwave d. radio wave
2. Electromagnetic waves are produced by ___________.
a. any disturbance b. currents
c. vibrating charge d. voltage source
3. Which two colors of light lie at the beginning and end of the visible spectrum?
a. red and violet b. red and yellow
c. yellow and violet d. yellow and green
4. This type of EM wave has a wavelength similar to the size of PBA basketball court (28 meters).
a. microwave b. radio wave
c. ultraviolet d. visible light
5. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the LEAST wavelength range?
a. infrared b. ultraviolet
c. visible light d. x-ray
6. What happens to the frequency of electromagnetic wave if its wavelength increases?
a. It decreases. b. It doubles.
c. It. increases as well. d. It remains the same.
7. Which of the following forms of electromagnetic wave has the WIDEST wavelength range?
c. ultraviolet d. x-ray
8. In the visible spectrum, which color has the LONGEST wavelength?
a. blue b. green
c. red d. violet
9. Which property spells the difference between infrared and ultraviolet radiation?
a. amplitude b. color
c. speed in vacuum d. wavelength
10. Which electromagnetic wave can travel the FARTHEST distances because it has a wavelength range of greater than 1x10-1 meters?
a. gamma ray b. radio wave
c. microwave d. x-ray
11. Which among the following electromagnetic waves has the LOWEST frequency?
a. gamma ray b. infrared
c. ultraviolet d. visible light
12. Which among the following electromagnetic waves has the SHORTEST wavelength?
a. infrared b. microwave
c. radio wave d. x-ray
13. Among the given EM waves below, which carries the MOST energy?
c. ultraviolet ray d. visible lights
14.Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Gamma ray has the highest frequency and the highest energy. b. Gamma ray has the highest frequency but has the least energy.
c. Radio wave has the highest frequency and the highest energy. d. Radio wave has the lowest frequency but has the highest
energy.
15. Which of the following is correctly arranged from HIGHEST to LOWEST energy?
a. Gamma ray, radio wave, infrared b. Microwave, x-ray, gamma ray
c. Ultraviolet, visible light, radio wave d. X-ray, gamma ray, ultraviolet
Score: ____
16. Who formulated the principle behind electromagnetic induction?
a. Faraday b. Hertz
c. Ampere d. Maxwell
17. In the electromagnetic wave, the direction of the propagation of the wave is_____.
a. always to the right b. always to the left
c. parallel to electric and magnetic field directions d. perpendicular to the electric and magnetic field directions
18. Which of the following is the contribution of Oersted in the development of Electromagnetic Wave Theory?
a. demonstrated the magnetic effect based on the direction of current
b. showed how a current carrying wire behaves like a magnet
c. showed how experimental evidence of electromagnetic waves and their link to light
d. contributed in developing equations that showed the relationship of electricity and magnetism.
19. The following are the properties of Electromagnetic waves EXCEPT_______.
a. EM waves can travel through a vacuum b. EM waves travel at the speed of 3 x 108 m/s
c. EM waves have an electric field and magnetic field which vibrate d. As wavelength of EM wave decreases, its frequency increases.
parallel to each other
20. The source of all electromagnetic wave is
a. magnetic fields b. heat
c. electric fields d. vibrating charges
21. Which of the following is NOT an electromagnetic wave?
a. Sound b. Radio
c. Light d. Infrared
22. How far is a light-second?.
a. 5000 km b. 300,000 km c. 4,000,000 km d. 50,000,000 k

23. What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave that has a frequency of 1 Hz?
a. More than 1 m b. Less than 1 m c.1 m d Cannot be determined
24. What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave having a wavelength of 300,000km?
a. More than 1 Hz b. Less than 1 Hz c. 1 Hz d. Cannot be determined 13
25. What is the wavelength of the wave with a frequency of 3 x 109 Hz?
a. 1.0 x 10-1 m b. 1.0 x 101 m c. 1.0 x 10-2 m d. 1.0 x 102 m
26. Regular reflection is the _______________ reflection of light on a(n) _______________ surface.
a. even, smooth b. semi-smooth, rough c. even or uneven, rough d. uneven, rough
27. The image you see on a plane mirror is placed in _________________ direction(s) of real image.
a. five b. the opposite c. multiple directions d. the same
28. A plane mirror has a/an _________________ reflecting surface.
a. angled b. concave c. convex d. flat
29. Diffuse Reflection is a(n) ________________ reflection of light rays on a _______________ surface.
a. even, smooth b. semi-smooth, rough c. even or uneven, semi rough d. uneven, rough
30.Scattering of light occurs when light waves travelling in _______________ direction(s) is/are made to travel in _________________
direction(s).
a. one, many b. one, ten c. many, one d. several, one
32. With Regular/Diffuse Reflection, the _____________ of the object will determine the SHARPNESS of reflection.
a. angle b. color c. surface d. a and b
33. As per the Law of Reflection measured through the normal line, the angle of incidence is ____________ to the angle of reflection.
a. equal b. greater than c. less than d. both a and b
34. A concave mirror may form an image which is _______________. Which one of the following is incorrect?
a. real, erect and magnified b. real, inverted and magnified c. real, inverted and diminished d. real, inverted and same size
35. The image in a convex mirror is always _______________________.
a. real, erect and diminished c. virtual, erect and diminished
b. real, erect and magnified d. virtual, inverted and diminished
36. The image formed in a plane mirror is _______________________ .
a. at the same distance in front of the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
b. at a shorter distance in front of the mirror than the distance that the object is in front of the mirror.
c. at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
d. at a shorter distance behind the mirror than the distance the object is in front of the mirror.
37. A typical mirror you look in at a home or in a restroom is a ____________ mirror.
a. concave b. convex c. parabolic d. plane
38. What type of lens produces smaller and upright images?
a. concave lens b. convex lens c. converging lens d. cannot be determined
39. What type of lens is thicker at the center as compared to its edges?
40. The size of the image is always smaller than the object in ____________________
a. concave mirror b. convex mirror c. plane mirror d. silver mirror
41. What type of lens is use to correct nearsightedness?
42. Who was the scientist who accidentally discovered the effect a current on a current-carrying conductor wire when he placed a compass
around the wire?
a. Michal Faraday b. Heinrich Lenz c. Hans Christian Oersted d. Allesandro Volta
43. What is the SI Unit of Magnetic Flux?
a. weber b. tesla c. newton d. joule
44. What device transforms electrical energy to mechanical energy?
a. motor b. generator c. galvanometer d. transformer
45.What devices transform mechanical energy to electrical energy?
a. motor b. generator c. galvanometer d. transformer
If you need wisdom, ask our generous God, and He will give it to you. He will not rebuke you for asking. -John 1:5
“God Bless You”

MIMAROPA REGION
Science 8
Name: ____________________________________________________________________ Section: _________________________
Directions: Choose the letter of the correct answer.
ABCD
1. Which of the following describes a fault?
A. An energy released from the inside of the Earth B. A movement in the Earth’s crust
C. A break in the Earth’s crust D. A rock layer
2. What occurs when faults move?
A. volcanic eruption B. earthquake
C. landslide D. drought
3. Why is it that not all movements along faults produce earthquakes?
A. It is because the energy of the Earth that causes the rocks to move is very strong enough.
B. It is because the friction between rocks was not overcome by the energy of the Earth.
C. It is because there is no friction present between the rocks.
D. It is because the layers of rocks were not broken.
4. Fault movement is always associated with earthquakes. Arrange the following events how fault movements generate earthquakes.
I. Once friction is overcome, the rocks suddenly slip.
II. Ground suddenly moves and an earthquake occurs.
III. Energy from inside the Earth is necessary to make the ground move.
IV. The rocks are stuck together due to friction.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, IV, I, III
C. III, IV, I, II
D. IV, II, I, III
5. How do faults produce earthquakes?
A. Energy from inside the Earth makes the ground move, once friction is overcome, a fault slips producing an earthquake.
B. Rock materials from underneath go out along faults produces earthquakes.
C. Magma spreads beneath the rock layers producing faults.
D. Tectonic plates collide producing earthquakes.
6. Which of the following describes a normal fault?
A. both blocks slide past another
B. both blocks of rock move upward
C. one block of rock does not move while the other moves upward
D. one block of rock does not move while the other moves downward
7. Which of the following refers to the type of fault in which two blocks slide horizontally past each other in the opposite direction?
A. strike-slip fault B. reverse fault C. normal fault D. landslide
8. Which of the following types of faults is shown in the picture?
A. strike-slip fault
B. reverse fault
C. normal fault
D. lateral fault
9. Which of the following DOES NOT show fault movement?
A. C.
B. D.
10. In which direction the block of rock layer will move if it shows reverse fault?
A. upward
B. to the left
C. to the right
D. downward
11. How can you relate fault movements with earthquakes?
A. Every time there is an earthquake this all due to fault movements.
B. Every time there is an earthquake, rock layers move causing faults to move as well.
C. Every time fault moves and friction between rocks is overcome this will result in an earthquake.
D. Every time fault moves even though friction between rocks has not overcome, this will result in an earthquake.
12. Why do earthquakes occur?
A. The crust suddenly moves as Earth rotates around its axis.
B. The Earth is attracted by a nearby planet.
C. The Earth is suddenly hit by a meteor.
D. The fault suddenly moves.
13. Which of the following could be the effect on the things above the Earth’s surface when faults move?
A. trees will grow taller
B. soil becomes thicker
C. sea water level rises
D. soil cracks
14. Which government agency is responsible for studying the movements of faults and earthquakes?
A. DOH B. DepEd C. PAGASA D. PHIVOLCS
15. For instance, your house is near a fault, which of the following are you going to consider doing?
A. inform your parents about it and evacuate immediately
B. inform the PHIVOLCS to monitor your house daily
C. tell your parents to construct a big house
D. take a selfie of the fault
16. Where do typhoons form?
A. Lakes B. Oceans C. Rivers D. Streams
17. Which weather disturbance develops in the northwest Pacific Ocean?
A. Blizzard B. Tornado C. Tropical Cyclone D. Tsunami
18. What is the other term for tropical cyclone?
A. Earthquake B. Tsunami C. Typhoon D. Wildfire
19. What Public Storm Warning Signal (PSWS) has a wind speed of 160 kph?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
20. Where do typhoons that hit the Philippines mostly originate?

A. Indian Ocean B. Pacific Ocean C. South China Sea D. West Philippine Sea
21. What does ITCZ mean?
A. Intertropical Convergence Zone C. Intertropical Converging Zone
B. Intratropical Converging Zone D. Intratropical Convergence Zone
22. Which tropical cyclone has a wind speed greater than 200 kph?
A. Super typhoon B. Typhoon C. Tropical storm D. Tropical depression
23. How would you describe the condition within the typhoon’s eye?
A. Calm B. Intense C. Sunny D. Violent
23. Which agency takes charge of giving information about incoming typhoon?
A. Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR)
B. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology (PHIVOLCS)
C. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC)
D. Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical and Astronomical Services Administration (PAGASA)
2. What will you do if a typhoon will hit your place?
A. store bread and milk C. watch TV and share on Facebook
B. hide in a room without windows D. leave the area and proceed to the evacuation center
25. What causes tropical cyclone to spin?
A. rotation of the earth C. gravitational pull of the sun
B. revolution of the earth D. gravitational pull of the moon
26. What is the cyclonic circulation of tropical cyclone if it is located in the southern hemisphere?
A. Clockwise B. Upward rotation C. Counterclockwise D. Downward rotation
27. Which statement tells about storm surge?
A. It is a rise in sea level due to global warming.
B. It is the rising of the sea level due to the friction between surface water and wind.
C. It is a destructive wave due to underwater earthquake that occurs along the seacoast.
D. It is an abnormal rise of sea water due to tropical cyclone that occurs along the coast.
28. Which item should NOT be included in an emergency kit?
A. cellphone B. pocketknife C. beauty product D. transistor radio
29. Which statement does NOT describe the windward side of a mountain?
A. It has abundant life forms.
B. It receives a lot of precipitation.
C. It has lots of vegetation due to abundance of precipitation.
D. It has less vegetation because the moist in the air is accumulated in the leeward side.
30. What is the name of the tropical cyclone formed in the northwestern part of the Pacific Ocean?
A. Hurricane B. Tornado C. Tsunami D. Typhoon
31. In what year did super typhoon Yolanda hit the Philippines?
A. 2011 B. 2012 C. 2013 D. 2014
32. When a typhoon visits your place, it brings a lot of damages depending on its strength. As a student, what can you do to protect
yourself and your family from this natural disaster?
33. In what direction does a tropical cyclone usually move?
A. Northeast B. Northwest C. Southeast D. Southwest
34. What is the wind speed of severe tropical storm?
A. 62 – 88 kph B. 89 – 117 kph C. 118 – 220 kph D. more than 220
35. During a typhoon, Public Storm Warning Signal (PSWS) is issued over the affected area. What is the impact of the wind when PSWS
signal is 4?
A. No to light damage C. Moderate to heavy damage
B. Light to moderate damage D. Heavy to very heavy damage
36. What should be done after a typhoon?
A. Store sufficient amount of food. C. Keep monitoring the typhoon’s movement.
B. Always ready with the emergency kit. D. Boil water before drinking as it may be contaminated.
37. Tropical cyclones are not formed on which part of the Pacific Ocean?
A. Northeastern B. Northwestern C. Southeastern D. Southwestern
38. What happens to a typhoon when it makes a landfall?
A. gets weaker B. stays longer C. moves faster D. gets stronger
39. How do landforms affect typhoon?
A. no effect at all
B. increase wind direction
C. serve as a fuel to travelling air masses making typhoon stronger
D. serve as an obstacle for travelling air masses making typhoon weaker
40. Which statement is INCORRECT?
A. Warm bodies of ocean water are the main source in the formation of typhoon.
B. Warm bodies of ocean water build up increasing the wind speed of typhoon.
C. Air from surrounding areas with lower air pressure pushes to the high-pressure area.
D. Tropical cyclone does not form in the South Atlantic Ocean due to its lower temperature.
41. Which is NOT a factor in the formation of a typhoon?
A. high humidity B. warm river water C. warm ocean water D. optimal location of typhoon
42. Which set of weather conditions characterizes the eye of tropical cyclone?
A. light winds, no clouds, no rains, and high temperatures B. heavy winds, no clouds, no rains, and high temperatures
C. light winds, large clouds, heavy rains, and low temperatures D. heavy winds, large clouds, heavy rains, and low temperatures
43. Which will occur as results of tropical cyclone?
A. strong wind, light rainfall, tornado, and tsunami C. strong wind, light rainfall, pyroclastic flow, and earthquake
B. strong wind, heavy rainfall, flood, and storm surge D. strong wind, heavy rainfall, storm surge, and earthquake
44. Which best describes leeward side?
A. Leeward side has abundant life forms. C. Leeward side has plenty of vegetation due to abundance of precipitation.
B. Leeward side receives a lot of precipitation. D. Leeward side has less vegetation because moist in the air is
accumulated in the windward side.
45. What is the difference among cyclones, hurricanes, and typhoons?
A. Typhoons are faster than cyclones but slower than hurricanes.
B. Cyclones are bigger than hurricanes but smaller than typhoons.
C. Hurricanes are stronger than cyclones but weaker than typhoons.
D. Cyclones, hurricanes, and typhoons occur in different geographical areas.
46. A rapidly rotating storm system characterized by low pressure-center, strong winds, and
spiral arrangement of thunderstorm.
47. A term referring to tropical cyclone in the northwestern part of the Pacific Ocean.g
48. It refers to a tropical cyclone that arrives over
49. A term referring to tropical cyclone in the northeastern part of the Pacific Ocean and Northern part of
Atlantic.
50. A box or bag containing the equipment, supplies, and medications needed during emergencies
For number 46-50
A. landfall
B. typhoon
C. emergency kit
D. hurricane
E. PAGASA
F. bagyo
G. tropical cyclon

MIMAROPA REGION
TLE-COOKERY 10
Name: ____________________________________________________________________ Section: _________________________
Directions: Choose the letter of the correct answer.
Direction: Write the letter T if the statement is correct and F if it is incorrect.
_____1.Choose vegetables of the right degree of maturity.
_____2.Select vegetables that are crisp, and light-colored.
_____3.Choose vegetables that are free from insect infestation.
_____4.Choose the variety that is needed for the dish or menu.
_____5.Choose vegetables that are free from bruises, blemishes, or molds.
_____6. Do not soak vegetables for a long period to prevent flavor and nutrient loss.
_____7.Wash all vegetables before cooking.
_____8. Vegetables are cut a day before cooking.
_____9.Vegetables with bruises and decay are considered good buys.
_____10.Most vegetables can be cooked without thawing.
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given choices and write the letter of your answer in the blank.
_____11.Which tool is used to drain excess water after washing vegetables?
A. Bowls C. Steamer
B. Colander D. Utility tray
_____12.Chef Miles Jero will cook chop suey. He is about to remove the hard- core of the cabbage. Which of the following
knives will he use?
A. Butcher knife C. Cutting Knife
B. Channel knife D. Paring Knife
_____13. What flavor component of vegetables gives strong flavor and odor to some vegetables like onions, cabbage,
broccoli and garlic?
A. Flavonoids C. Glutamic Acid
B. Sugar D. Sulfur Compound
_____14. Which fat-soluble compound is responsible for the green coloring of plants?
A. Anthocyanins C. Chlorophyll
B. Carotenoids D. Lycopene
_____15. Mrs. Catangay needs more supply of Vitamin A. Which of the following will she eat to give her the nutrient she
needs?
A. Alugbati C. Saluyot
B. Potatoes D. Lettuce
_____16. This can be done by using an oven, a dehydrator or the warm heat of the sun.
A. food storage C. freezing food
B. food refrigeration D. proper storing
_____17. This is a method of food preservation that is labor intensive.
A. canning C. freezing
B. drying D. salting
_____18. This means that microorganisms initiate the fermentation process and change the food quality without causing
bad tastes or generating toxins.
A. curing and salting C. freezing
B. drying D. canning
_____19. A method of preservation where it prevents microorganisms from growing causing food spoilage.
A. freezing C. curing
B. drying D. canning
_____20. The convenient method used to preserve most of the products generated by our ancestors.
A. common storage C. canning
B. freezing D. curing and salting
_____21. It ensures that very little food is wasted.
A. food safety C. kitchen efficiency
B. menu planning D. food wastage
_____22. This is especially helpful when there are multiple items of the same product.
A. FIFO C. FIDO
B. FIDA D. FIFA
_____23. It is a handy way to remember that the food that has been bought in first needs to
be consumed first.
A. FIFO C. FIFA
B. FIDO D. FIDA
_____24. These need to be stored only in the freezer for a maximum of 6 months and shorter for some types of meats.
A. raw meat C. canned vegetables
B. dried vegetables D. raw vegetables
_____25. This should be done regularly through the stock to ensure that everything is stored in the correct order and that
it is in perfect condition.
A. checking C. storing
B. garnishing D. slicing
_____26. This is very important in preventing the spread of pathogens in the kitchen.

A. cooking C. chilling
B. cross-contamination D. cleaning
_____27. This is a must for the cooked food to be placed in the refrigerator
A. cooking C. chilling
B. cleaning D. cross-contamination
_____28. A plan is also very essential important in any food service preparation area.
A. menu plan C. food plan
B. sanitation plan D. hygienic plan
_____29. These are found in raw foods, such as meat, poultry, eggs, fish, seafood, raw fruits and vegetables.
A. germs C. decay
B. contamination D. surface
_____30. This is a PPE in the kitchen which is worn clean daily.
A. glove C. apron
B. shoe D. uniform
_____31. Holding boxes should have high________.
A. Humidity C. clean
B. double dip D. cross-contamination
_____32. ________ salads before serving time.
A. Humidity C. refrigerate
_____33. Keep your tools and equipment in the kitchen clean to avoid ______
A. Humidity C. refrigerate
_____34. Practice _________handling of food. Wash your hands before working on food.
A. Humidity C. proper
_____35. ________bottles or containers where you store salad dressings and other ingredients.
B. double dip D. sanitize
_____36. ______ hands before and after handling food.
A. wash C. proper
_____37. Wear _______ to protect your dress from dirt and spills.
B.Apron D. sanitize
_____38. _______ the food container with the manufacturing date.
A. Label C. proper
_____39. Do not ________serving spoon to avoid cross-contamination of food.
A. Humidity C. double dip
_____40. Use _________to protect hands from cuts and for hygienic purposes.
A. gloves C. double dip
_____41. What tool is used in holding or serving salad?
A. refrigerator C. re-sealable bag
B. salad bowl D. serving spoon
_____42. What equipment is commonly used for storing salad
A. microwave oven C. refrigerator
B. freezer D. blender
_____43. What supplies are used to pat salad leaves to remove moisture?
A. disposable plastic container C. re-sealable bag
B. paper towel D. salad dressing shaker
_____44. What should be worn to protect the dress from dirt and sills while preparing salad?
A. apron C. facemask
B. gloves D. uniform
_____45. Which tool is used to mix and hold salad dressing?
A. disposable plastic container C. re-sealable bag
B. paper towel D. salad dressing shaker
_____46. It is a complementary addition to the main ingredient of the meal.
A. Accompaniment C. Garnish
B. Dressing D. Salad
_____47. The following are considerations in choosing accompaniments to salad, except
A. Color C. Garnish
B. Flavor D. Texture
_____48. Salad meals are typically accompanied by the following, except
A. Fish C. Toasted bread
B. Meat D. Water
_____49. Which of the following is one of the purposes of salad accompaniments?
A. To enhance appetite.
B. To decorate the food.
C. To maintain the freshness of the food.
D. None of the above
_____50. It is a kind of salad consisting of shredded raw cabbages with a dressing that can be accompanied by tacos and
all kinds of sandwiches.
A. Coleslaw C. Potato salad
B. Fruit salad D. Jellied meat salad

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