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Dr. Widad Nasser
Introduction

Hip and femur fracture

Hip / femur dislocation

Other common condition of hip and femur

Special pead. consideration
Regarding anatomy of hip and femur ,, what's
FALSE :
 The predominant bone in proximal part is cancellous and distal
 to intertrochantric is cortical

 The arterial supply to femoral head arise from 3 source , the major
 source is the intraoasseous cervical arteries

  The common femoral vein is posterior and medial to the common
  femoral artery,,, at the inguinal ligament

  Sciatica nerve arise from L 4 to S 3
compartments        muscles              nerves         vesssels

               Quadriceps,femoris
               ,sartorius,iliacus,    Lat.femoral     Femoral a/v
 anterior
               psous,pectineus        cutanous


               Gracilis,add. Longus
 medial                               obturator       Profounds
               & magnus,obt.
                                                      femoris a.&
               externus
                                                      obt. a/v

               Biceps femoris
 posterior                            Sciatica,pos.   Profundus
               ,semitendinous,smi
                                      femoral         femoris
               membranosus,add.
                                      cutaneous       branches
               magnus
Age and gender are prediposing factors for specifi
injury (stress#/patho. #/oesteop.)

Mechanism of trauma may aid in predicting injury
pattern
Ch. medical condition predipose pt to certain
complication e.g. AVN in ch. Steroid used


Femoral /hip # may lead to hypotention ---
diagnosis of exclusion


After stabilizing pt --- examine limb for
asymerical , neurovascular
When femoral # supected ,, the pt will be transported
from the area to A/E with traction ,,,,, whats FALSE
regarding traction :
   Traction should be discontinued once the pt arrives in the
   A/E

   Traction should not be used in open fracture with exposed bone


   Traction should not be used in pt suggested to have
   neurological involvement



  Injured exterimities should be immobilized with traction when
  moving the pt
Which of the following statements about femoral neck
fractures is FALSE?


     The injury is most common in older women after a
     minor fall, but it occurs at all ages with significant
     trauma.
     Stress fracture may not show on initial films; treat
     conservatively and repeat x-rays in 10-14 days.


     Rest pain and inability to walk are always present



    With complete displaced fracture, the leg will be held in
    slight external rotation and abduction and shortening will
    be noted
displaced # rtFemoral Neck   Subtle rt femoral neck #
Fig 53-16
Fig. 53-24
Which of the following statements describing the
treatment for femoral neck fractures is FALSE?

  Nondisplaced: a prosthesis is always required

  Displaced: open reduction and internal fixation or a
  joint prosthesis

  Stress fracture: either internal fixation or expectant
  treatment may be used.


   Non-displaced : early ambulation and internal fixation
Hip arthroplasty
Indication :
  Joint damage 2ndry to arthritis
  Hip #
  AVN
  Tumor

Complication :
   Aspetic losning of prosthesis
   Infection
   DVT
   Post op. femoral dislocation
Undisplaced # of neck
femur treated with
screw and plate
Intertrochentric fracture exetended between
greater and lesser trochenter of femur ,,, whats
FALSE :
   Associated mortality rate is > 80 % due to risk of
   hemodynamic instability


   The leg apperas internaly rotated and shorter on examination



    In patient with other medical condition mortality rate
    increased if patient taken to OT on the day of injury


    Internal fixation is preferable on urgent but not
    emergent basis

                                                        10-30 % only
In trochentric fracture , whats FALSE :

     Fracture of lesser and greater trochenter is
     rare


    Is more common on female than in male


       Result of direct fall over trochenter or avulsed by
       iliopsoas muscle

   If avulsed, the fragment will be displaced superiorly and
   anteriorly

                                                    Sup.& pos.
The treatment for trochanteric hip fracture (avulsion
of the trochanter) is __.


      1. internal fixation


   2. bed rest with progressive rehabilitation or internal
   fixation depending on the degree of displacement


    3. hip replacement

     1 and 2 but not 3 since primary closure is best

     1, 2, and 3 are correct
Subtrochentric fracture occur between the lesser
trochenter and proximal 5 cm of femoral shaft ,,, whats
FALSE :

 The proximal fragment produce flexion,abduction and
 external rotation

  Often accompaine femoral nerve and artery injury


   Its mostly comminuated fracture and increase the risk of
   non-union

 Fracture fastly heal because highly vascular region

   Delay union and non-union are rare


                                          It is poor vascular region
Classsification of subtrochentric fracture
Subtrochanteric hip fracture may occur with high-speed
trauma or due to a fall in elderly patients. Which of the
following statements regarding the treatment of
subtrochanteric hip fractures is correct?

   Treatment of the fracture should take priority
   regardless of the other injuries sustained.

    Traction immobilization; it is usually followed by
    internal fixation

     Internal fixation is seldom required

     Long-leg cast.


     Surgical intervention is preferable in children < 10 years old
Rt Femur shaft # AP
view
Femoral shaft fracture are common injury
in young adult after high energy trauma ,,,
what is FALSE :
 Open fracture are less frequent and often the result of
 gunshot wound
 Almost half are a/w ligmantous damage in knee , so knee
 examination is unremarkable

  Severly comminuted fracture are more likely to be treated
  by open reduction and internal fixation

 Refracture commonly occur during early healing and
 period immediately after hardware removed

                                          Severly comm. Rx mostly
                                          close reduction
Fracture of the femoral shaft requires significant trauma, and is
most often caused by a motor vehicle accident, fall or child abuse.
The victim is most often a younger male. Several units of blood may
be lost into the thigh, resulting in hemorrhagic shock. Which of the
following statements regarding treatment is true?

  An intramedullary rod or nail allows early
  mobilization (within a few days) in uncomplicated
  fractures.
  A traction splint should never be applied in the
  field
  Prolonged bed rest with traction is the treatment of
  choice
  Treat with 6-8 weeks of skeletal traction progressing
  to a cast brace


  Plate fixation is never required for comminution
The capsule of the hip joint is weakest __, where it
inserts on the femoral neck rather than the
intertrochanteric crest. This partly explains why most
hip joint dislocations are __.

   Anteriorly; anterior


   Posteriorly; anterior


    Posteriorly; posterior


    Anteriorly ; posterior
Which of the following statements about the
classifications of hip dislocation is FALSE?

    Anterior: less common than posterior dislocation


    Posterior: the most common type (about 90%)



   Central (impaction through the acetabulum): the second most
   common type



   Inferior : occur exculusively in children younger than 7 years


                                        Post./ant./cent.
About 90% of hip dislocations are posterior. Which of
the following statements about posterior hip
dislocations is FALSE?

  Use traction in line with the femoral axis with flexion of the hip
  and gentle manipulation while an assistant fixates the pelvis.


  The leg is shortened and internally rotated

  It usually results from a posteriorly-directed force applied to the
  flexed knee.

  Posterior acetabular fracture is common and can be seen on
 oblique views.
                                                       adducted
  The thigh is abducted

 Treat with closed reduction as soon as possible to avoid avascular
 necrosis of the femoral head or neurovascular injury to the extremity
About 5-10% of hip dislocations are anterior. Which of
the following statements about anterior hip
dislocations is FALSE?

  Apply persistent traction in line with the femur with gentle
  manipulation while an assistant fixates the pelvis. Flexion,
  adduction, and/or internal rotation manipulation while maintaining
  in-line traction may be required
 Closed reduction should be performed as soon as possible to
 minimize the chance of avascular necrosis of the hip or
 neurovascular injury to the extremity.

  Rule out associated fracture prior to manipulation

  The leg is abducted and externally rotated
  The hip is extended

                                                 Hip is flexed
Fig. 53-21,,,,53-22
Post. Dislocation of hip with adduct thigh and
internally roated ansd shorten
Posterior Dislocation of the Left Hip - AP View
Posterior Dislocation of the Left Hip - Oblique View
Fig. 53-26 ,,,53-27
Femoral Shaft
Fracture &
Fracture/Dislocation
of the Hip - Hip X-
Ray
Myositis ossification is pathological bone formation at
a site where a bone is not normally found ,,, what is
FALSE :
Traumatic myositis result from # or direct severe trauma and
repaited minor trauma

 The incidince is 2 % after treatment of close hip dislocation and
 40 % in when open reduction required

 In X-ray it appears as irregularly shaped masses of
 hetarogeneous bone in the soft tissuearound the joint


Surgical intervention is contraindicated if the lession is near
joint



                                                Its indicated not C.I.
Motion of the muscles, tendons and skin about the hip
joint is facilitated by more than a dozen bursae, any of
which can become inflamed. Which of the following
statements about hip bursitis is FALSE?

  Usually due to overuse or trauma

  Infection or gout: should also be considered as
  possible causes

 Seen on exam: hip or lateral thigh pain, increased with abduction
 and external rotation, as well as with straight-leg raising or
 impaction of the heel with the leg extended
  Seen on exam: tenderness and possibly heat and swelling
  over the greater trochanter
 May be helpful: ice, rest, and anti-inflammatory medications;
 intrabursal local anesthetic and steroid injections

                                  Pain not with straight leg or impaction
Treatment of an open wound of the hip joint
includes:

    1. irrigation and debridement in the operating
    room

    2. tetanus prophylaxis and antibiotics


    3. secondary closure


   1 and 2 but not 3 since primary closure is best


     1, 2, and 3 are correct
Singh intreduce a grading system involving the
trabecular pattern of proximal end of femur that’s
useful in evaluating the degree of osteoprosis ,,,What is
FALSE regarding singh score :

X-ray of the head of femur can quantify the degree of osteoporosis
even n non-fractured bones


The singh score contains six score depend on five trabecular
groups,, the worses is grade VI

 As osteoprosis progress,,the trabecular groups dissapear
 one at a time in predictable pattern


 All five grup of trabeculae are seen normally in AP view of
 non-diseased head,neck ,proximal end of femur
                                               Worser grade I
Fig. 53-6
Which statement is FALSE :

   Hamstring muscle starin : toe-touch weight bearing
   i.e. walking with crutches with toes of inj. Limb rest
   on ground w/o wt bearing


  Quadriceps tear : surgical repair and extensive rehabilitation


  Iliopsoas strain : partial flexion at knee and hip for 7-10 D


  Hip adductor strain : complete bed rest for 3 mnths
AVN result of ischemic bone death of femoral head after
compromise of its blood supply ,,,, whats FALSE :


 On normal person ,,,,,, non-traumatic painful hip doesn’t R/O
 AVN

Hip dislocation should reduced within 48-72 hrs to significantly
reduced incidence of AVN


 AVN rarly complicated intertrochanteric fracture


 With optimal treatment, femoral neck fracture are complicated
 by AVN in 11% to 19% of cases


                                      Within 24 hrs
Box 53-1
86 male pt present with h/o hip pain since 3 months ,
no h/o recent trauma ,the pain is more in the morning
and progressivly increased with time , o/e no
deformities or shorthining , only minor active and
passive tenderness on motion ,,, whats best answer :

  If plain film is negative ,, discharge pt with analgesia


  If plain film is negative ,, discharge pt with analgesia and
  to repait xray after 10-14 days

  Addmit the pt for pain mangment


   Order CT/MRI hip
Development of femoral head and neck with its growth palates and two
                     primary ossification center




New       4mnth                               4 yr                 6 yr
                            1 yr
born
Physis #            transcervical




 cervicotrochentric   intertrochentric




Delbet classification of
femoral head fracture in peads
2 years old child present with h/o fever,limp and pain
in lt hip , gram +ve bacteria are recovered from the
hip joint , which of the following is most correct :

  Causative organism include Neisseria and group B
  streptoccocus

 Culture will be positive in approximatl 50 %

  Girls are afftected more than boys


  The hip is most commonly affected joint

 Sed rate is superior to CRP in making diagnosis
8 years boy with no h/o fever or trauma , present
with pain in his groin ,Legg-Calve- perthes disease
is suspected ,,, which of following is correct :

 Disease is bilateral in 50 % of cases


Finding in initial LCP inclde widning of medial joint space and
irregularity of physis

Peak year of incidence is 10 – 12 yrs


Radionnuclear scan give more information than plain film
regarding femoral head necrosis


There is limited adduction and internl rotaion on examination
☺ Perthes disease is AVN to femoral head of peads resulted in
softining and break down of femoral head

☺ B/w 2 -10 yrs of age. ,,,, male > female

☺ 20 % b/l ,, limitation abd. & ext. rotation

☺Rx immobilization or limitations on usual activities or surgical

☺ After 18 months to 2 years of treatment, most children return to
normal activities without major limitations.
14 yrs old obese boy present with acute onset of pain
in his lt hip after a football injury ,, xray of affected
hip demonistrate a Slipped Cappital Femoral Head ,,,
which of following is most correct :

 Xray of controlateral hip is indicated


  AVN would not be a complication on this pateient


  Boy present at younger age than girl


  This injury can be classify as stable
☺ SCFEis a Salter-Harris type 1 fracture through the proximal femoral
physis.

☺ Stress around the hip causes a shear force to be applied at the growth
plate and epiphysis to move posteriorly and medially.

☺ The almost exclusive incidence of SCFE during the adolescent growth
spurt indicates a hormonal role.

☺ Obesity is another key predisposing factor in the development of SCFE.

☺ Because the physis has yet to close, the blood supply to the epiphysis
still should be derived from the femoral neck; however, this late in
childhood, the supply is tenuous and frequently lost after the fracture
occurs.

☺ Clinical presentation often is misleading, with only 50% of patients
presenting with hip pain and 25% presenting with knee pain☺
Clinical Serise Hip Widad
Clinical Serise Hip Widad
Clinical Serise Hip Widad
Clinical Serise Hip Widad

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Clinical Serise Hip Widad

  • 2. Introduction Hip and femur fracture Hip / femur dislocation Other common condition of hip and femur Special pead. consideration
  • 3.
  • 4. Regarding anatomy of hip and femur ,, what's FALSE : The predominant bone in proximal part is cancellous and distal to intertrochantric is cortical The arterial supply to femoral head arise from 3 source , the major source is the intraoasseous cervical arteries The common femoral vein is posterior and medial to the common femoral artery,,, at the inguinal ligament Sciatica nerve arise from L 4 to S 3
  • 5.
  • 6. compartments muscles nerves vesssels Quadriceps,femoris ,sartorius,iliacus, Lat.femoral Femoral a/v anterior psous,pectineus cutanous Gracilis,add. Longus medial obturator Profounds & magnus,obt. femoris a.& externus obt. a/v Biceps femoris posterior Sciatica,pos. Profundus ,semitendinous,smi femoral femoris membranosus,add. cutaneous branches magnus
  • 7. Age and gender are prediposing factors for specifi injury (stress#/patho. #/oesteop.) Mechanism of trauma may aid in predicting injury pattern Ch. medical condition predipose pt to certain complication e.g. AVN in ch. Steroid used Femoral /hip # may lead to hypotention --- diagnosis of exclusion After stabilizing pt --- examine limb for asymerical , neurovascular
  • 8.
  • 9. When femoral # supected ,, the pt will be transported from the area to A/E with traction ,,,,, whats FALSE regarding traction : Traction should be discontinued once the pt arrives in the A/E Traction should not be used in open fracture with exposed bone Traction should not be used in pt suggested to have neurological involvement Injured exterimities should be immobilized with traction when moving the pt
  • 10.
  • 11. Which of the following statements about femoral neck fractures is FALSE? The injury is most common in older women after a minor fall, but it occurs at all ages with significant trauma. Stress fracture may not show on initial films; treat conservatively and repeat x-rays in 10-14 days. Rest pain and inability to walk are always present With complete displaced fracture, the leg will be held in slight external rotation and abduction and shortening will be noted
  • 12.
  • 13. displaced # rtFemoral Neck Subtle rt femoral neck #
  • 16.
  • 17. Which of the following statements describing the treatment for femoral neck fractures is FALSE? Nondisplaced: a prosthesis is always required Displaced: open reduction and internal fixation or a joint prosthesis Stress fracture: either internal fixation or expectant treatment may be used. Non-displaced : early ambulation and internal fixation
  • 18. Hip arthroplasty Indication : Joint damage 2ndry to arthritis Hip # AVN Tumor Complication : Aspetic losning of prosthesis Infection DVT Post op. femoral dislocation
  • 19.
  • 20. Undisplaced # of neck femur treated with screw and plate
  • 21. Intertrochentric fracture exetended between greater and lesser trochenter of femur ,,, whats FALSE : Associated mortality rate is > 80 % due to risk of hemodynamic instability The leg apperas internaly rotated and shorter on examination In patient with other medical condition mortality rate increased if patient taken to OT on the day of injury Internal fixation is preferable on urgent but not emergent basis 10-30 % only
  • 22.
  • 23. In trochentric fracture , whats FALSE : Fracture of lesser and greater trochenter is rare Is more common on female than in male Result of direct fall over trochenter or avulsed by iliopsoas muscle If avulsed, the fragment will be displaced superiorly and anteriorly Sup.& pos.
  • 24. The treatment for trochanteric hip fracture (avulsion of the trochanter) is __. 1. internal fixation 2. bed rest with progressive rehabilitation or internal fixation depending on the degree of displacement 3. hip replacement 1 and 2 but not 3 since primary closure is best 1, 2, and 3 are correct
  • 25. Subtrochentric fracture occur between the lesser trochenter and proximal 5 cm of femoral shaft ,,, whats FALSE : The proximal fragment produce flexion,abduction and external rotation Often accompaine femoral nerve and artery injury Its mostly comminuated fracture and increase the risk of non-union Fracture fastly heal because highly vascular region Delay union and non-union are rare It is poor vascular region
  • 26.
  • 28. Subtrochanteric hip fracture may occur with high-speed trauma or due to a fall in elderly patients. Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of subtrochanteric hip fractures is correct? Treatment of the fracture should take priority regardless of the other injuries sustained. Traction immobilization; it is usually followed by internal fixation Internal fixation is seldom required Long-leg cast. Surgical intervention is preferable in children < 10 years old
  • 29. Rt Femur shaft # AP view
  • 30. Femoral shaft fracture are common injury in young adult after high energy trauma ,,, what is FALSE : Open fracture are less frequent and often the result of gunshot wound Almost half are a/w ligmantous damage in knee , so knee examination is unremarkable Severly comminuted fracture are more likely to be treated by open reduction and internal fixation Refracture commonly occur during early healing and period immediately after hardware removed Severly comm. Rx mostly close reduction
  • 31. Fracture of the femoral shaft requires significant trauma, and is most often caused by a motor vehicle accident, fall or child abuse. The victim is most often a younger male. Several units of blood may be lost into the thigh, resulting in hemorrhagic shock. Which of the following statements regarding treatment is true? An intramedullary rod or nail allows early mobilization (within a few days) in uncomplicated fractures. A traction splint should never be applied in the field Prolonged bed rest with traction is the treatment of choice Treat with 6-8 weeks of skeletal traction progressing to a cast brace Plate fixation is never required for comminution
  • 32.
  • 33. The capsule of the hip joint is weakest __, where it inserts on the femoral neck rather than the intertrochanteric crest. This partly explains why most hip joint dislocations are __. Anteriorly; anterior Posteriorly; anterior Posteriorly; posterior Anteriorly ; posterior
  • 34. Which of the following statements about the classifications of hip dislocation is FALSE? Anterior: less common than posterior dislocation Posterior: the most common type (about 90%) Central (impaction through the acetabulum): the second most common type Inferior : occur exculusively in children younger than 7 years Post./ant./cent.
  • 35. About 90% of hip dislocations are posterior. Which of the following statements about posterior hip dislocations is FALSE? Use traction in line with the femoral axis with flexion of the hip and gentle manipulation while an assistant fixates the pelvis. The leg is shortened and internally rotated It usually results from a posteriorly-directed force applied to the flexed knee. Posterior acetabular fracture is common and can be seen on oblique views. adducted The thigh is abducted Treat with closed reduction as soon as possible to avoid avascular necrosis of the femoral head or neurovascular injury to the extremity
  • 36. About 5-10% of hip dislocations are anterior. Which of the following statements about anterior hip dislocations is FALSE? Apply persistent traction in line with the femur with gentle manipulation while an assistant fixates the pelvis. Flexion, adduction, and/or internal rotation manipulation while maintaining in-line traction may be required Closed reduction should be performed as soon as possible to minimize the chance of avascular necrosis of the hip or neurovascular injury to the extremity. Rule out associated fracture prior to manipulation The leg is abducted and externally rotated The hip is extended Hip is flexed
  • 38.
  • 39. Post. Dislocation of hip with adduct thigh and internally roated ansd shorten
  • 40. Posterior Dislocation of the Left Hip - AP View
  • 41. Posterior Dislocation of the Left Hip - Oblique View
  • 43.
  • 45.
  • 46. Myositis ossification is pathological bone formation at a site where a bone is not normally found ,,, what is FALSE : Traumatic myositis result from # or direct severe trauma and repaited minor trauma The incidince is 2 % after treatment of close hip dislocation and 40 % in when open reduction required In X-ray it appears as irregularly shaped masses of hetarogeneous bone in the soft tissuearound the joint Surgical intervention is contraindicated if the lession is near joint Its indicated not C.I.
  • 47. Motion of the muscles, tendons and skin about the hip joint is facilitated by more than a dozen bursae, any of which can become inflamed. Which of the following statements about hip bursitis is FALSE? Usually due to overuse or trauma Infection or gout: should also be considered as possible causes Seen on exam: hip or lateral thigh pain, increased with abduction and external rotation, as well as with straight-leg raising or impaction of the heel with the leg extended Seen on exam: tenderness and possibly heat and swelling over the greater trochanter May be helpful: ice, rest, and anti-inflammatory medications; intrabursal local anesthetic and steroid injections Pain not with straight leg or impaction
  • 48.
  • 49. Treatment of an open wound of the hip joint includes: 1. irrigation and debridement in the operating room 2. tetanus prophylaxis and antibiotics 3. secondary closure 1 and 2 but not 3 since primary closure is best 1, 2, and 3 are correct
  • 50. Singh intreduce a grading system involving the trabecular pattern of proximal end of femur that’s useful in evaluating the degree of osteoprosis ,,,What is FALSE regarding singh score : X-ray of the head of femur can quantify the degree of osteoporosis even n non-fractured bones The singh score contains six score depend on five trabecular groups,, the worses is grade VI As osteoprosis progress,,the trabecular groups dissapear one at a time in predictable pattern All five grup of trabeculae are seen normally in AP view of non-diseased head,neck ,proximal end of femur Worser grade I
  • 52.
  • 53. Which statement is FALSE : Hamstring muscle starin : toe-touch weight bearing i.e. walking with crutches with toes of inj. Limb rest on ground w/o wt bearing Quadriceps tear : surgical repair and extensive rehabilitation Iliopsoas strain : partial flexion at knee and hip for 7-10 D Hip adductor strain : complete bed rest for 3 mnths
  • 54. AVN result of ischemic bone death of femoral head after compromise of its blood supply ,,,, whats FALSE : On normal person ,,,,,, non-traumatic painful hip doesn’t R/O AVN Hip dislocation should reduced within 48-72 hrs to significantly reduced incidence of AVN AVN rarly complicated intertrochanteric fracture With optimal treatment, femoral neck fracture are complicated by AVN in 11% to 19% of cases Within 24 hrs
  • 56. 86 male pt present with h/o hip pain since 3 months , no h/o recent trauma ,the pain is more in the morning and progressivly increased with time , o/e no deformities or shorthining , only minor active and passive tenderness on motion ,,, whats best answer : If plain film is negative ,, discharge pt with analgesia If plain film is negative ,, discharge pt with analgesia and to repait xray after 10-14 days Addmit the pt for pain mangment Order CT/MRI hip
  • 57.
  • 58. Development of femoral head and neck with its growth palates and two primary ossification center New 4mnth 4 yr 6 yr 1 yr born
  • 59. Physis # transcervical cervicotrochentric intertrochentric Delbet classification of femoral head fracture in peads
  • 60. 2 years old child present with h/o fever,limp and pain in lt hip , gram +ve bacteria are recovered from the hip joint , which of the following is most correct : Causative organism include Neisseria and group B streptoccocus Culture will be positive in approximatl 50 % Girls are afftected more than boys The hip is most commonly affected joint Sed rate is superior to CRP in making diagnosis
  • 61. 8 years boy with no h/o fever or trauma , present with pain in his groin ,Legg-Calve- perthes disease is suspected ,,, which of following is correct : Disease is bilateral in 50 % of cases Finding in initial LCP inclde widning of medial joint space and irregularity of physis Peak year of incidence is 10 – 12 yrs Radionnuclear scan give more information than plain film regarding femoral head necrosis There is limited adduction and internl rotaion on examination
  • 62. ☺ Perthes disease is AVN to femoral head of peads resulted in softining and break down of femoral head ☺ B/w 2 -10 yrs of age. ,,,, male > female ☺ 20 % b/l ,, limitation abd. & ext. rotation ☺Rx immobilization or limitations on usual activities or surgical ☺ After 18 months to 2 years of treatment, most children return to normal activities without major limitations.
  • 63.
  • 64.
  • 65. 14 yrs old obese boy present with acute onset of pain in his lt hip after a football injury ,, xray of affected hip demonistrate a Slipped Cappital Femoral Head ,,, which of following is most correct : Xray of controlateral hip is indicated AVN would not be a complication on this pateient Boy present at younger age than girl This injury can be classify as stable
  • 66. ☺ SCFEis a Salter-Harris type 1 fracture through the proximal femoral physis. ☺ Stress around the hip causes a shear force to be applied at the growth plate and epiphysis to move posteriorly and medially. ☺ The almost exclusive incidence of SCFE during the adolescent growth spurt indicates a hormonal role. ☺ Obesity is another key predisposing factor in the development of SCFE. ☺ Because the physis has yet to close, the blood supply to the epiphysis still should be derived from the femoral neck; however, this late in childhood, the supply is tenuous and frequently lost after the fracture occurs. ☺ Clinical presentation often is misleading, with only 50% of patients presenting with hip pain and 25% presenting with knee pain☺