use ful for plus two passed out students

1. ICAR- AIEEA 2019-20MODEL EXAMINATION FORADMISSIONTO
Bsc.,(Agriculture) Degree Programme
Pr e p are d B y S.Kannan
Senior Agricultural Officer
Seed Testing Laboratory,Thiruvarur
Email:kannan.tnau@gmail.com.9965563563
M O K E U P TEST FOR S T R E A M “A”PATTERN
Number of Questions: 150 Total Marks:600
Duration :2& ½ of hours Type: Multiple choice type
Instructonsto Canddates
TheStreamA consistsof four subjects,andthey
arePhysics,Chemistry,andBiology.
Also,eachsubjectincludes50 Questions.
 Fourmarksareawardedforeachright answer.
Andonemarkisdeductedforeachwronganswer.
No deductionfornonattempt of Questions
Thetotal numberofquestionsare150questions.
And, the total numberof marksallocatedforthe
examare600marks.

2. Physics(1-50 Questons)
Q1: What is the SI unit of energy?
1. Newton
2. Joule
3. Erg
4. Watt
Q2: A ball is thrown upwards vertically. What is the velocity of the ball at
its highest point?
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2)
1. 8 m/s
2. 1 m/s
3. 0 m/s
4. cannot be determined since time is not given.
Q3: An object of mass 20 kg moves with uniform acceleration from rest to a
speed of 2m/s in 20 secs. On average how much power is generated in 20
seconds duration.
1. 10 W
2. 20 W
3. 40 W
4. 2 W
Q4) Wavelength is
(i)The distance traveled by the wave in one period of oscillation of particles in
the medium.
(ii) The distance between two particles, which are in the same phase.
(iii)Half of the distance between two particles, which are in the same phase.
The correct definitions are
1. (i) and (iii)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)

3. 4. (ii) and (iii)
Q5: If we increase the time period of a wave, its frequency will
1. decrease
2. increase
3. remains same
4. none of these
Q6. The line perpendicular to the reflective surface is the .
1. normal
2. line of refraction
3. line of incidence
4. line of reflection
Q7. Your image in a bathroom mirror results from .
1. diffuse reflection
2. specular refraction
3. specular reflection
4. diffuse refraction
Q8. How does light normally travel?
1. in concentric circles
2. in a straight line
3. always toward a dark area
4. in a curved line
Q8. What is f if you have an object 2.0 m from the concave mirror, and the
image is 4.0 m from the mirror?
1. 0m
2. 0,67 m
3. 3 m
4. 0 m
Q9. In a concave mirror, an object placed will result in a
virtual image.
1. twice the distance of the focal point
2. between the focal point and mirror

4. 3. between the focal point and twice the distance of the focal point
4. past the focal point
Q10: Light year is a unit of
1. time
2. distance
3. sunlight intensity
4. mass
Q11: The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant is
1. [MLT]
2. [ML2T-1]
3. [M2L2T-1]
4. [ML1T-1]
Q12: The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne/cm. In MKS system its value
is?
1. 70 N/m
2. 7 ✕ 10-2 N/m
3. 7 ✕ 102 N/m
4. 7 ✕ 103 N/m
Q13: The dimensions of Kinetic energy is same as that of
1. Force
2. Pressure
3. Work
4. Momentum
Q14: At 4° C, the density of water is equal to
1. 10-3 kg m-3
2. 10-2 kg m-3
3. 10 kg m-3
4. 103 kg m-3
Q15: One watt hour contains how many joules?
1. 6 ✕ 108 J
2. 6 ✕ 102 J
3. 6 ✕ 103 J
4. 10-3 J

5. Q16: Which of the following pairs has the same dimensions?
1. Specific Heat and Latent Heat
2. Impulse and Momentum
3. Surface Tension and Force
4. Moment of Inertia and Torque
Q17: The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as Vander wal
equation i.e.
(P + a/v2)(V – b) = RT
Where P is the pressure, V is the volume, T is the absolute temperature and
a, b, R are
constants. The dimensions of ‘a’are:
1. [M1L1T-1]
2. [M1L-5T1]
3. [M2L5T-1]
4. [M1L5T-2]
Q18: Electron volt is a unit of
1. Charge
2. Potential difference
3. Energy
4. Magnetic Force
Q19: There are 20 divisions in 4 cm of the main scale. The vernier scale has
10 divisions. The least count of the instrument is
1. 05 cm
2. 5 cm
3. 0 cm
4. 005 cm
Q20: Which of the following is a physical change?
1. Rusting of Iron

6. 2. Heating of Iron
3. Burning of Wood
4. Ripening of a fruit.
Q21: Which of the following is a chemical change?
1. Boiling of Water
2. Tearing of Newspaper
3. Cooking a vegetable
4. Freezing water into ice
Q22: Which of the following is NOT a physical property of a substance?
1. shape
2. color
3. density
4. flammability
Q23: 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + nA + O2 What is nA in the given reaction?
1. 4NO
2. 4NO2
3. 2PbNO2
4. NO2
Q24: A slow combustion in which glucose present in the body cells combine
with oxygen to provide energy is
1. digestion
2. excretion
3. respiration
4. none of the above
Q25;. Optical fibre works on the
A. principle of refraction
B. total internal reflection
C. scattering
D. interference
26). Light from the star, Alpha Centauri, which is nearest to the earth
after the sun, reaches the earth in

7. A. 4.2 seconds
B. 42 seconds
C. 4.2 years
D. 42 years
27). Supersonic plane fly with the speed
A. less than the speed of sound
B. of sound
C. greater than the speed of sound
D. of light
28). Mach number is used in connection with the speed of
A. sound
B. aircraft
C. spacecraft
D. ships
28) On a stationary sail boat, air is blown from a fan attached to the boat.
The boat
A. moves in opposite direction in which the air is blown
B. does not move
C. moves in the same direction in which air blows
D. spins around
29). Rainbow is due to
A. absorption of sunlight in minute water droplets
B. diffusion of sunlight through water droplets
C. ionisation of water deposits
D. refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets
30). Stars which appear single to the naked eye but are double when seen
through a telescope are
A. novas and supernovas
B. binaries

8. C. asteroids
D. quasars
31). ML2T-2 is the dimensional formula for
A. moment of inertia
B. pressure
C. elasticity
D. couple acting on a body
32). Solar eclipse will take place when
A. the sun is between the moon and the earth
B. the earth is between the moon and the sun
C. the moon is between the sun and the earth
D. the moon does not lie on the line joining the sun and the earth
33). Isotopes of an element contain
A. the same number of protons but different number of neutrons
B. the same number of neutrons but different number of protons
C. equal number of protons and electrons
D. equal number of nucleons
34). One watt-hour is equivalent to
A. 6.3 x 103 J
B. 6.3 x 10-7 J
C. 3.6 x 103 J
D. 3.6 x 10-3 J
:
35). Sir C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected
with which of the following phenomenon of radiation?
A. Scattering
B. Diffraction

9. C. Interference
D. Polarization
36). In which of the following industries is mica as a raw material?
A. Cement
B. Glass and Pottery
C. Iron and Steel
D. Electrical
37). Radiocarbon dating technique is used to estimate the ageof
A. rocks
B. monuments
C. soil
D. fossils
38). Identify the vector quantity from thefollowing
A. Heat
B. Angular momentum
C. Time
D. Work
39). Large astronomical telescopes always use as objective
A. lens
B. mirror
C. combinations of lenses
D. None of the above
40). One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same
power socket because
A. this can damage the appliances due to overloading
B. this can damage the domestic wiring due to overloading
C. this can damage the electrical meter
D. the appliance will not get full voltage

10. 41). Rainbow is produced when sunlight fall on drops of rain.
Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible
for this?
I)Diffusion
II)Refraction
III)Internal reflection
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
42). Natural radioactivity was discovered by
A. Marie Curie
B. Ernest Rutherfor
C. Henri Becquerel
D. Enrico Fermi
43). Planets are
A. luminous heavenly bodies revolving around a star
B. non-luminous heavenly bodies
C. luminous heavenly bodies that twinkle
D. luminous heavenly bodies that do not twinkle
44).
:
One nanometer is equal to
A. 10-6m
B. 10-8m
C. 10-9m
D. 10-5m
45). Mica is used in electrical appliances such as electric iron
because mica is
A. a good conductor of heat but a bad conductor of electricity

11. B. a bad conductor of heat but a good conductor of electricity
C. a good conductor of heat as well as electricity
D. a bad conductor of heat as well as electricity
46). It is easier to roll a barrel full of coal tar than to pull it because
A. the full weight of the barrel comes into play when it is pulled
B. the rolling friction is much less than the sliding friction
C.
more surface area of the barrel is in contact with the road when
it is pulled
D. coal tar is a liquid and it flows in the barrel when it is rolled
47). Minimum number of unequal vectors which can give zero
resultant are
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. more than four
48). Intensity of sound has
A. an object existence
B. a subject existence
C. no existence
D. both subjective and objective existence
49). Rain is falling vertically downwards. To a man running east-
wards, the rain will appear to be coming from
A. east
B. west
C. northeast
D. Southeast
50)Mercury is commonly used as a thermometric
fluid rather than water because
A. specific heat of mercury is less than water

12. B. specific heat of mercury is more than water
C. mercury has greater visibility than water
D. density of mercury is more than the water
.
Chemistry Questions and Answers(51-100 questons)
Q51: Which of the following MIGHT NOT tell a chemical change has taken
place?
1. Evolution of gas.
2. Light is generated
3. Production of heat
4. Converting liquid into gas.
Q52: Turning milk into curd is a
1. physical change
2. physical property
3. chemical change
4. chemical property
Q53: Whose reactivity is highest among the following metals?
1. Copper
2. Potassium
3. Iron
4. Zinc
Q54: The metal stored in kerosene due to its high reactivity with air and
water is …
1. Magnesium

13. 2. Zinc
3. Sodium
4. Calcium
Q55: Materials having the properties of both metals and non metals are
called .
1. Metalloids
2. Noble metals
3. Alloys
4. Mixtures
Q56: Metals are generally
1. soft and ductile
2. hard and brittle
3. non-reactive and malleable.
4. hard, ductile and malleable
Q57: Which non-metal is a good conductor of electricity?
1. Phosphorus
2. Sulphur
3. Graphite
4. Coal
Q58: Proton was discovered by:
1. Rutherford
2. Goldstein
3. Chadwick
4. J. Thomson
Q59: Canal rays are
1. negative charged particles
2. positive charged particles
3. beam of neutrons
4. gamma radiation
Q60: α-particles are
1. negative charged particles
2. positive charged particles
3. beam of neutrons
4. gamma radiation

14. Q61:An α-particle is
1. a Hydrogen nucleus
2. a Helium nucleus
3. a proton
4. an electron
Q62)The names of the scientists, Newlands, Mendeleev, and Meyer are
associated with the development of
A. atomic structure
B. metallurgy
C. periodic table of contents
D. discovery of elements
Q63: Rutherford’s gold foil experiment showed that most of the α-particles
passed through the gold foil without any deflection. It indicates that
1. the nucleus is concentrated at the centre
2. the nucleus carries positive charge
3. there is lot of empty space in atom
4. the nucleus carries the most of the mass
Q64: Which of the following is not a decomposition reaction?
1. CaCO3 →CaO + CO2
2. H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
3. H2CO3 → H2O + CO2
4. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
Q65: Which of the following is not an oxidising agent?
1. Oxygen
2. Sulphuric acid
3. Chlorine
4. Hydrogen
Q66: The oxidation reaction which produces heat and light is
1. endothermic
2. photochemical
3. combustion
4. exothermic

15. Q67: Which of the following is an odd compound?
1. Ethene
2. Ethane
3. Propene
4. Acetylene
Q68: Which one of the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
1. Acetylene
2. Butane
3. Propane
4. Decane
Q69: Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the
trends when going from left to right across the periods of periodic Table.
1. The elements become less metallic in nature.
2. The number of valence electrons increases.
3. The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
4. The oxides become more acidic.
Q70: Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid
with a high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the
Periodic Table as
1. Na
2. Mg
3. AI
4. Si
Q71: Which of the following is a Döbereiner’s triad?
1. Ne, Ca, Na
2. H2, N2, O2
3. Li, Na, K
4. Na, Br, Ar
Q72: Name the scientist who gave the Law of octaves?
1. Mendeleev
2. Newlands
3. Dalton
4. Döbereiner
Q73: Mendeleev’s periodic table is based on the

16. 1. Atomic weight
2. Atomic number
3. Atomic radius
4. Atomic volume.
74). The major constituent of air is
A. nitrogen
B. carbon dioxide
C. oxygen
D. hydrogen
75). The main chemical constituent of clay is
A. silicon oxide
B. aluminium borosilicate
C. zeolites
D. aluminium silicate
76). The mineral containing both magnesium and calcium is
A. magnesite
B. calcite
C. carnallite
D. dolomite
77). The metal does not give H2 on treatment with dilute HCLis
A. Zn
B. Fe
C. Ag
D. Ca
78). The number of g-molecule of oxygen in 6.02 x 1024CO molecules is
A. 1 gram of molecule

17. B. 0.5 gram of molecule
C. 5 gram of molecule
D. 10 gram of molecule
79). The most extensive, commercially useful source of thorium as
monazite sand occurs in India at
A. Orissa coast
B. Travancore coast
C. West Bengal coast
D. Gujarat coast
80). The main active constituent of tea and coffee is
A. nicotine
B. chlorophyll
C. caffeine
D. aspirin
81). The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with molecular
formula C4H8 is
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
82). The hardest form of carbon is
A. coke
B. graphite
C. diamond
D. charcoal
84).
:
The most important ore of aluminium is
A. bauxite
B. magnetite

18. C. haematite
D. monazite
83). The organic reaction represented by equation CH3 - CH = O +
H2NOH gives CH3 - CH - NH + H2O is an example of
A. an addition reaction
B. a condensation reaction
C. an oxidation reaction
D. an elimination reaction
85). The number of electrons presents in H+ is
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three
86).
Explanation:
H+ is a hydrogen ion, and it is an ion because it LOST an electron.
Electrons are negatively charged. When an atom gains electrons it will
have NEGATIVE charges.
So it has zero electron.
The hottest part of the gas flame is known as
A. luminous zone
B. dark zone
C. blue zone
D. non-luminous zone
87). The human body is made up of several chemical elements; the
element present in the highest proportion (65%) in the body is
A. carbon
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen
88). The isomerism which exists between CH3CHCI2 and CH2CI. CH2CI

19. is
A. chain isomerism
B. functional group isomerism
C. positional isomerism
D.
Metamerism
89). The half life period of an isotope is 2 hours. After 6 hours what
fraction of the initial quantity of the isotope will be left behind?
A. 1/6
B. 1/3
C. 1/8
D. 1/4
90). The number of waves made by an electron moving in an orbit having
maximum magnetic quantum number is +3
A. 4
B. 5
C. 2
D. zero
91). The number of atoms present in 21.6 gram of silver (atomic weight=
108) are same as the molecules in
A. 1.8 gram of H2O
B. 12 moles of KMnO4
C. 0.6N H2SO4
D. 4.6 gram of C2H5OH
92). The National Chemical Laboratory is situated in
A. New Delhi
B. Bangalore
C. Pune
D. Patna
93). Equal masses of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are kept under

20. identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases will be
A. 2 : 16 : 2
B. 2 : 16 : 1
C. 1 : 16 : 2
D. 1 : 1 : 1
94). The mass number of an atom is equal to
A. the number of protons
B. the number of protons and electrons
C. the number of nucleons
D. the number of neutrons
95). The maximum number of covalent formed by nitrogen is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
96). The formula C6H5-CO-CH3 represents
A. Acetone
B. Acetic acid
C. Acetophenone
D. Phenyl acetate
97). The metal that is usually extracted from sea water is
A. Ca
B. Na
C. K
D. Mg
98). The method of concentrating the ore which makes use of the
difference in density between ore and impurities is called

21. A. liquation
B. leaching
C. levigation
D. magnetic separation
99). The inertgases are in water
A. sparingly soluble
B. insoluble
C. soluble
D. None of these
100) The molecular formula of phosphorous is
A. P1
B. P2
C. P3
D. P4
Biology Questons (101--150 questons)
Q101: Two neighbours of homologous series differ by
1. -CH
2. -CH2
3. -CH3

22. 4. -CH4
Q102Receptors for hearing are located in the
A) Vestibule
B) Tympanic
membrane
C) Semicircular canals D) Cochlea
Answer: D) Cochlea
Explanation:
Receptors for hearing the organ of corti or the spiral organ is located in the the
mammalian cochlea
Q103: What structure separates the colon from the small intestine?

23. A) ileocecal valve B) Epiglottis
C) Sphincter D) None of the above
Answer: A) ileocecal valve
104) NADH from the Krebs cycle is approximately equal to:
(a) 2 ATP
(b) 3ATP
(c) 4 ATP
(d) 6ATP
(e) None of these
105) In mitochondrial electron transport chains, the final c acceptor is:
(a) H2O
(b) H2O2
(c) NAD+
(d) FAD
(e) None of these
106) The movement of water from cell to cell via plasmadesmata is called:
(a) Symplastic
(b) Transmembrane
(c)Apoplastic
(d) Facilitated
(e) None of these
107) In maize plant, the CO2 fixation mechanism is called:
(a) C3 pathway
(b) C4 pathway
(c) CAM pathway
(d) C3 – C4 intermediate
(e) None of these
108) Salt-loving plants are known as:
(a) Glycophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Xerophytes
(d) Mesophytes
(e) None of these

24. 109) With the addition of solution to a liquid system, the water potential of
the system:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains stable
(d) Remains variable
(e) None of these
110) The conversion of pyruvate into acetyl C0. A is called:
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Fermentation
(c) Oxidative carboxylation
(d) B-Oxidation
(e) None of these
111) Between adenine and thymine, there are:
(a) Two hydrogen bonds
(b) 3 hydrogen bonds
(c) One hydrogen bond
(d) 4 hydrogen bonds
(e) None of these
112) The stage of meiosis in which pairing of homologous chromosomes
starts is called:
(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Diplotene
(d) Pachytene
(e) None of these
113) The site of chromosome on which a gene is located is called:
(a) Allele
(b) Locus
(c) Site
(d) Trait
(e) None of these
114) In a dihybrid cross, the ratio of F2 generation is:
(a) 9:3:3:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:2:1
(d) 1:1

25. (e) None of these
115) When a single gene has multiple effects, the phenomenon is called:
(a) Codominance
(b) Epistasis
(c) Pleiotropy
(d) Genostasis
(e) None of these
116) Lamarck’s theory of evolution was published in:
(a) 1807
(b) 1808
(c) 1809
(d) 1810
(e) None of these
117) The book “Origin of Species” was written by:
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Lamarck
(c) Mendel
(d) Darwin
(e) None of these
118) The interaction between algae and fungi to form lichen is called:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutalism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Amensalism
(e) None of these
119) The actual location or place where an organism lives is called:
(a) Habitat
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Niche
(d) Biome
(e) None of these
120) Which of the biomes has been increased in area by human activities?
(a) Savanna
(b) Grassland
(c) Desert
(d) Coniferous forest
(e) None of these

26. 121) Which zone of the lake ecosystem consists of phyto-and zoo-
planktons?
(a) Littoral zone
(b) Limnetic zone
(c) Profundal zone
(d) Water deep layers
(e) None of these
122) Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Decomposers
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
123) A sequence of changes in the community structure of an ecosystem
over a period of time is called:
(a) Natural selection
(b) Succession
(c) Neo-Darwinism
(d) Lamarckism
(e) None of thes
124) Monocot root differs from dicot root in having
A. open vascular bundles
B. scattered vascular bundles
C. well developed pith
D. radially arranged vascular bundles
125) Radioactivity is a phenomenon of the spontaneous emission of
A. protons (alpha particles)
B. electrons (beta particles)
C. gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic waves)
D. All of the above
126). Organic Substances which, in very small amounts, control growth
and development called
A. vitamins

27. B. hormones
C. enzymes
D. None of the above
127). Our major foods, fibres, spices, fruits and beverage crops are
A. flowering plants
B. gymnosperms plants
C. pteridophytes
D. bryophytes
128). Movements due to light are shown by
A. flowering plants
B. lower plants
C. all land plants
D. all the plants
129. Outer covering of virus made up of protein is
A. capsid
B. coat
C. virion
D. viriod
130. Radish is a
A. bulb
B. conn
C. modified root
D. tuber
131). Most common disease of poultry in India is

28. A. fowl pox
B. tick fever
C. ranikhet
D. coryza
132. Most abundant tissues of our body are
A. muscular
B. connective
C. epithelial
D. nervous
1333. Mumps is a disease caused by
A. fungus
B. bacterium
C. virus
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
134. Rain water helps toincrease the to some extent.
A. phosphorous contents
B. nitrogen contents
C. calcium contents
D. potash contents
135. Number of chromosomes in Down's syndrome is
A. 46
B. 47
C. 48
D. 49

29. 136. Plants are killed in winter by frost
A. because of desiccation and mechanical damage to the tissues
B. because no photosynthesis takes place at such low temperature
C. because respiration ceases at such low temperature
D. because there is no transpiration
137. One of the following is most suitable for study of mutations
A. Haploids
B. Diploids
C. Tetraploids
D. Polyploid
138. Pulses are a good source of
A. carbohydrates
B. fats
C. proteins
D. vitamins
139. Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named
A. haemoglobin
B. keratin
C. collagen
D. myoglobin
140. Nymph is the name of young one of
A. butterfly
B. beetle
C. housefly
D. cockroach
141). One day you wake with a sore throat and a runny nose. Your doctor
takes a swab from your throat, sends it to a lab, and telephones you
the next day to say that antibiotic will not help you get better. Which

30. of the following is the most likely reason for the doctor's statement?
A. Having waited a day, it is too late to take an antibiotic
B. You need an antiseptic, not an antibiotic
C. You need to be vaccinated instead of taking an antibiotic
D. You are infected by a virus
142. Plants that grow under average temperature and moisture are
called
A. halophytes
B. hydrophytes
C. mesophytes
D. xerophytes
143. Oxyreductases, transferases, hydrolases, lyases, isomerases and
ligases are all classes of
A. hormones
B. enzymes
C. proteins
D. vitamins
144. Mutation is
A. a factor responsible for plant growth
B. a change which affects the offspring of F2 generation only
C. a change that is inherited
D. a change which affects the parents
145. Pollination by wind is called
A. anemophily
B. hydrophily
C. zoophily
D. entomophily
146. Pollen grains in plants are produced in

31. A. roots
B. leaves
C. flower
D. stem
147. Nitrogen is fixed in ecosystems in ways stated below. Which one of the
statements below is false?
A. By cyanobacteria
B. By electrical discharges in the atmosphere
C. By industrially synthesised fertilizer
D. By denitrification
148). Ptyalin is an enzyme produced in the
A. salivary glands
B. pituitary glands
C. thyroid glands
D. pancreas
149)Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, Corynebacterium
diphtheria causes diphtheria and Vibrio comma causes
A. tetanus
B. influenza
C. cholera
D. typhoid
150)Which pair consists of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

32. A) blunted affect and
delusions
B) delusions and
hallucinations
C) withdrawal and flat
affect
D) abolition and
hallucinations
AAnswer: D) abolition and hallucinations
Explanation:
Abolition and hallucinations is the pair that consists of negative symptoms of
schizophrenia