Practice questions for the biology section of the Optometry Admission Test (OAT). For more questions and tips on how to do well on the Optometry Admission Test, please visit us at http://www.ioatprep.com/
Optometry Admission Test Practice Biology Questions
1.
OPTOMETRY ADMISSION TEST PRACTICE BIOLOGY
QUESTIONS (FULL SET)
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2.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
1-‐10
(Cell
and
Molecular
Biology)
31-‐34
(Developmental
Biology)
11-‐20
(Animal
Structures)
35-‐37
(Diversity)
21-‐30
(Genetics)
38-‐40
(Evolution)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
A.
Cell
and
Molecular
Biology
___
1.
Plant
cells
contain
all
of
the
following
EXCEPT:
A. Cell
Wall
B. Vacuoles
C. Centrioles
D. Plastids
___
2.
Prokaryotes’
and
Eukaryotes’
main
difference
lies
in
this
structure
of
the
cell.
A. Cell
Wall
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria
___
3.
Which
of
the
following
is
TRUE
of
the
features
of
an
active
site
of
an
enzyme?
A. This
site
takes
up
more
than
half
of
the
total
volume
of
all
enzymes.
B. Several
strong
attractions
bind
the
substrate
to
the
enzyme.
C. This
site
is
a
crevice
in
the
enzyme.
D. Overall
specificity
of
its
binding
process
depends
on
the
cofactors
and
substrates.
For
questions
4
and
5,
take
a
look
at
this
graph.
(This
graph
shows
the
effect
of
inhibition
to
the
normal
enzymatic
reaction)
A
B
___
4.
Line
A
represents
this
type
of
inhibition.
A. Competitive
B. Non-‐Competitive
C. Uncompetitive
D. Irreversible
___
5.
Line
B
represents
a
type
of
inhibition
having
these
characteristics.
A. Same
Km,
Different
Vmax
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3. B. Same
Km,
Same
Vmax
C. Different
Km,
Same
Vmax
D. Different
Km,
Different
Vmax
___
6.
The
cell
cycle
has
how
many
checkpoints?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
___
7.
Homologue
pairings
and
crossing
overs
occur
in:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Both
D. None
of
the
Above
___
8.
The
following
are
TRUE
of
cellular
respiration
EXCEPT:
A. Glycolysis
is
a
process
of
producing
ATP
from
glucose
via
substrate-‐level
phosphorylation.
B. Oxygen
is
an
excellent
electron
acceptor
to
recycle
NADH
into
NAD+.
C. In
the
electron
transport
chain,
3
ATP’s
can
be
produced
from
NADH
while
only
2
ATP’s
can
be
activated
from
FAD2.
D. 2
oxidations
occur
in
the
Kreb’s
cycle,
oxidation
of
α-‐ketoglutarate
and
succinate.
___
9.
The
actual
yield
of
ATP
in
respiration
is
lower
than
the
theoretical
yield
because:
A. The
inner
mitochondrial
membranes
are
leaky
to
proteins.
B. Chemiosmotic-‐generated
proton
gradient
is
not
solely
used
for
ATP
synthesis.
C. Both
D. None
of
the
Above
___
10.
Cactus
is
a
succulent
desert
plant
that
uses
this
type
of
photosynthesis.
A. C3
B. C4
C. CAM
D. Only
B
&
C
B.
Animal
Structures
___
11.
All
of
the
statements
are
TRUE,
EXCEPT.
A. There
are
more
cavities
in
the
coelom
of
the
Reptiles
than
the
Amphibians.
B. Diaphragm
separates
the
peritoneal
cavity
from
the
thoracic
cavity.
C. Thoracic
cavity
can
be
divided
into
2:
peritoneal
cavity
and
pleural
cavity.
D. None
of
the
Above.
___
12.
The
largest
organ
of
the
body
is
the:
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Skin
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4. D. Heart
___
13.
The
following
are
TRUE
of
endoskeleton
EXCEPT:
A. Composed
of
rigid
internal
bones
and
cartilages.
B. Moves
the
body
by
contraction
of
muscles
attached
to
the
skeleton.
C. Limits
the
size
of
an
individual.
D. Capable
of
remodeling.
For
questions
14
and
15,
take
a
look
at
this
illustration.
(This
is
an
electron
microscopic
view
of
a
sarcomere)
___
14.
The
white
arrows
represent
what
part
of
the
sarcomere?
A. M-‐line
B. Z-‐disk
C. H-‐band
D. I-‐band
___
15.
The
black
arrows
point
to
heavily
shaded
lines
representing
what
kind
of
fibers?
A. Thin
Fibers
B. Thick
Fibers
C. Both
D. None
of
the
Above
___
16.
In
humans,
there
are
three
pairs
of
salivary
glands
that
secrete
saliva
through
ducts
in
the
mouth’s
mucosal
lining.
These
are:
A. Submandibular,
Sublingual
and
Parotid
B. Submandibular,
Submaxillary
and
Parotid
C. Submandibular,
Submaxillary
and
Sublingual
D. Submaxillary,
Sublingual
and
Parotid
___
17.
The
following
associations
between
immunologic
cell
types
and
their
functions
are
TRUE,
EXCEPT:
A. Helper
T-‐cells
detects
infection
and
sounds
the
alarm,
initiating
both
T
cell
and
B
cell
responses.
B. Plasma
cells
produce
antibodies
directed
against
specific
foreign
antigens.
C. Cytotoxic
T-‐cells
detects
and
kills
infected
body
cells.
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5. D. Inducer
T-‐cells
induce
an
inflammatory
response,
aiding
the
arrival
of
leukocytes
at
a
site
of
infection.
___
18.
Which
of
the
following
are
stored
in
the
Neurohypophysis?
A. Vasopressin
and
Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
and
Oxytocin
C. Vasopressin
and
Prolactin
D. None
of
the
Above
___
19.
True
of
the
Nervous
System.
A. Schwann
cells
produce
myelin
in
the
CNS.
B. Transmission
through
an
unmyelinated
sheath
is
enhanced
by
“Saltatory
Conduction”.
C. Dendrites
covered
in
myelin
sheaths
are
said
to
be
myelinated.
D. The
simplest
nervous
systems
occur
among
cnidarians.
___
20.
These
are
mechanoreceptors
are
all
intermittently
activated
(phasic)
EXCEPT:
A. Hair
follicle
receptors
B. Meissner’s
corpuscles
C. Pacinian
corpuscles
D. Merkel
cells
C.
Genetics
For
question
21.
Refer
to
the
illustration
below.
(This
is
a
graphical
representation
of
Adenine)
___
21.
What
type
of
nitrogen-‐containing
base
is
the
structure
given
above?
A. Purine
B. Pyrimidine
C. Both
D. None
of
the
Above
___
22.
During
transcription,
the
gene
must
be
spliced
to
remove
non-‐coding
regions
which
will
not
translate
any
polypeptide.
The
sequence
that
will
be
spliced
out
are
the:
A. Exons
B. Introns
C. Cistrons
D. None
of
the
Above
___
23.
What
kind
of
mutation
can
be
seen
in
the
following
example?
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6.
Normal
sequence
:
ACTGGGTACGCCAAGTGTACG
Mutated
sequence
:
ACTGGGTACACCAAGTGTACG
A. Germ-‐line
mutation
B. Somatic
tissue
mutation
C. Point
mutation
D. Spontaneous
mutation
For
questions
24
and
25.
Refer
to
the
illustration
below.
(This
is
a
Punnet
Square
showing
a
monohybrid
cross)
A
B
___
24.
What
is
the
genotype
of
seed
A?
A. AA
B. Aa
C. aa
D. None
of
the
Above
___
25.
If
there
will
be
a
cross
between
seed
A
and
seed
B,
what
will
be
the
genotypic
ratio?
E. 1:2:1
F. 2:1:1
G. 1:1:2
H. 3:1
___
26.
A
case
was
presented
where
a
couple
with
blood
types
A
and
B
for
the
mother
and
father
respectively,
had
a
child
having
a
blood
type
of
O.
Is
this
possible?
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. Lack
of
information.
D. None
of
the
Above.
For
question
27.
Refer
to
the
illustration
below.
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7.
___
27.
This
pedigree
analysis
shows
what
mode
of
inheritance?
A. Sex-‐linked
Dominant
B. Sex-‐linked
Recessive
C. Autosomal
Dominant
D. Autosomal
Recessive
___
28.
Trisomy
13
is
what
genetic
disorder?
A. Down
syndrome
B. Patau
syndrome
C. Edwards
syndrome
D. None
of
the
above
___
29.
A
genetic
disorder
involving
a
nondisjunction
of
the
sex
chromosomes
where
an
XX
gamete
combines
with
a
Y
gamete
resulting
to
an
XXY
zygote
and
developing
into
a
sterile
male
who
has
many
female
body
characteristics
and,
in
some
cases,
mental
retardation.
A. Turner
Syndrome
B. Klinefelter
Syndrome
C. Jacob’s
Syndrome
D. Triple
X
Syndrome
___30.
True
of
Polymerase
Chain
Reaction
(PCR).
A. Annealing
is
needed
to
dissociate
the
double
helix
DNA
into
single
strands.
B. Primer
extension
may
be
done
at
a
temperature
of
about
50
-‐
65°C
C. Denaturation
is
an
optional
step
in
PCR
but
may
be
done
to
optimize
the
reaction.
D. An
agarose
gel
electrophoresis
is
done
after
PCR
to
see
the
DNA
bands.
D.
Developmental
Biology
___31.
If
fertilization
does
not
occur,
corpus
luteum
develops.
After
it
has
reached
its
maximal
development,
these
next
series
of
events
occur
EXCEPT:
A. Degeneration
of
lutean
cells
causing
the
corpus
luteum
to
shrink.
B. Corpus
albicans
now
forms
as
a
mass
of
fibrotic
tissue.
C. Progesterone
production
now
increases.
D. Menstrual
bleeding
ensues.
___32.
Identify
the
decidua
part
that
is
found
on
top
of
the
chorion
frondosum.
A. Decidua
Capsularis
B. Decidua
Basalis
C. Decidua
Parietalis
D. Decidua
Marginalis
___33.
All
of
these
contribute
to
the
development
of
the
body’s
skeletal
system
EXCEPT:
A. Paraxial
Mesoderm
B. Somatic
Mesoderm
C. Splanchnic
Mesoderm
D. Neural
Crest
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8. ___34.
In
the
cloacal
membrane,
mesenchymal
cells
migrate
to
form
cloacal
folds,
cranial
to
this
is
the
genital
tubercle
while
caudal
to
this
is
the
urethral
fold
which
in
males
swells
and
becomes
the:
A. Penis
B. Scrotum
C. Testes
D. Prostate
Gland
E.
Diversity
___35.
In
taxonomy,
the
correct
hierarchy
of
classification
of
all
living
things
is:
A. Kingdom-‐Phylum-‐Class-‐Family-‐Order-‐Genus-‐Species
B. Kingdom-‐Phylum-‐Family-‐Class-‐Order-‐Genus-‐Species
C. Kingdom-‐Phylum-‐Order-‐Class-‐Family-‐Genus-‐Species
D. Kingdom-‐Phylum-‐Class-‐Order-‐Family-‐Genus-‐Species
___36.
The
following
are
all
phyla
from
the
Kingdom
Fungi
EXCEPT:
A. Ascomycota
B. Acrasiomycota
C. Basidiomycota
D. Zygomycota
___37.
In
terms
of
body
cavity,
which
of
the
following
is
different?
A. Phylum
Platyhelminthes
B. Phylum
Molusca
C. Phylum
Annelida
D. Phylum
Arthropoda
F.
Evolution,
Ecology
and
Behavior
___
38.
According
to
the
Hardy–Weinberg
principle,
both
the
allele
and
genotype
frequencies
in
a
large,
random-‐mating
population
will
remain
constant
from
generation
to
generation
if
none
of
these
processes
would
occur:
A. Selection
B. Mutation
C. Gene
Flow
D. All
of
the
Above
___
39.
Cladistics
is…
A. A
biological
approach
that
reconstructs
and
studies
all
phylogenies.
B. A
biological
approach
that
constructs
differences
and
similarities
between
organisms
into
an
evolutionary
tree
C. A
biological
approach
that
infers
phylogeny
according
to
the
similarities
derived
from
a
common
ancestor
D. All
of
the
Above
___
40.
True
of
community
ecology:
A. Niche
is
synonymous
with
habitat.
B. Habitat
is
a
pattern
of
living
C. Interspecific
competition
may
occur
within
their
niche.
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9. D. Habitat
is
described
in
terms
of
space
utilization,
food
consumption
and
temperature
range
to
name
a
few.
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answers
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to:
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