MCQ for Lab Technician

1. MULTIPLE CHOICE OF LAB TECHNOLOGY
1. Eosinophil contains just about ….. large granules
A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400
2. Fatty Acids are stored in the form of Triacylglycerols (TG) in the……. of adipocyte (cells).
A) Nucleus B) Cytoplasm C) Mitochondria D) Lysosome
3. The aim of reflux technique is to
A) Purify reagent B) Remove turbidity
C) Mix reagent D) Prevent loss of solvent or reagent due to evaporation.
4. Which is the quantitative method of urinary protein estimation?
A) Acetic acid method B) Sulphosalicylic acid method C)Esbach’s method D)Heller ring method
5. Zeiman’s dot is found in
A) Plasmodium vivax B) P. falciparum C) P. ovale D) P. malariae
6. Technique used for the estimation on the basis of their colour of emission is
A) Electrophoresis B) Chromatography C) Flame photometerD) Colorimeter
7. Which of the following parameter is not used for the calculation of urinary osmolarity?
A) Sodium C) Potassium C) Glucose D) Albumin
8. Which is the tumor marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma?
A) Desmin B) PSA C) Calcitonin D) CEA
9. Which is the tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?
A) CA15-3 B) CA27-29 C) CA - 199 D) CA-125
10. The test that counts the number of immature RBC’s is the:
A) Osmotic fragility test B) Reticulocyte count
C) RBC count D) Stab cell count
11. The concentration of agar in TSI soft media generally is
A) 1.5% B) 0.5% C) 2.5% D) 1.2%
12. Fog is a solution of
A) Air in water vapors B) Air in air
C) Vapors in vapors D) Water vapors in air
13. Histidine Rich Protein-2 is related to
A) Vivax B) Ovale C) Malraria D) Falciparum
14. In multiple myeloma which of the following pasma protein level is increased?
A) Alpha fetoprotein B) Gamma globulin C) Albumin D) Hemoglobin
15. The end product of glycolysis is always lactate in
A) Kidney B) Lung C) Brain D) RBC
16. Urine pregenancey test is positive due to presence of which hormone in urine?
A) HCG B) Estrogen C) Progesterone D) FSH
17. If the total bilirubin is 3.1mg/d1 and the conjugated bilirubin is 2.0 mg/dl, the
unconjugated billirubin is
A) 0.5 mg/dl B) 1.1 mg/dl C) 2.2 mg/ dl D) 5.1 mg/dl
18. Which of the following is the commonly used fixative in cytology?
A) 95% ethanol B) 95% methanol
C) Equal part of 95% ethanol and ether D) none of the above
19. Which of the following fixative is preferred as secondary fixative for electron
microscopy?
A) Formaldehyde B) Osmium tetroxide C) Zenker's fixative D) Gluteraldehyde
20. One gram of hemoglobin in produces
A) 15 mg of bilirubin B) 25 mg of bilirubin C) 35 mg of bilirubin D) 45 mg of bilirubin
21. Which one of them is non acid fast:

2. A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Nocardia
C. Actinomyces D. Mycobacterium leprosy
22. "Circle of willis" is found in
A) Brain B) Kidney C) Duodenum D) Liver
23. “Pressure-loving” bacteria are
A. barophiles B. thermophiles
C. halophiles D. psychrophiles
24. What wold be appropriate temperatureof water bath for floating of sections during
microtomy?
A) 45°C B) 55°c C) 59°C D) 62°C
25. Which of the following cells are infected by HIV?
A) B cells B) Macrophages C) CD4+T Lymphocytes D) CD8+T Lymphocytes
26. Pneumocystis carinii is
A) Bacteria B) Virus C) Fungus D) Parasites
27. Azoospermia means
A) No sperm in semen B) Less sperm in semen
C) No measureable amount of sperm in semen D) Too much sperm in semen
28. Cyst of Ascaris
A) Found in acute infection B) Found in chronic infection
C) Found in stool of cats D) None of the above
29. Which of the following is not a gram–positive bacterium?
A) Streptococcus B) Pseudomonas C) Mycobacteria D) None of the above
30. ESR value is expressed on
A) cm/hour B) mm/1st
hour C) inch/hour D) mm/hour
31. Which of the following reagent is used in sickling test?
A) 2% sodium metabisulphide B) 2% sodium hydroxide
C) 10% ammonium hydroxide D) 10% sodium bicarbonate
32. Which of the following test is abnormal in factor VII deficiency?
A) Bleeding time B) Platelet count C) APTT D) Prothrombin time
33. Inoculating loop is made up of
A) Iron B) Zine C) Copper D) Nichrome
34. Which test could not be performed on a serum sample:
A) Iron B) Vitamin B1 C) Total lipids D) Clotting factors
35. The antibody present in serum of blood group 'O' person is
A) Anti 'A' B) Anti 'B' C) Both A and B D) None of the above
36. Folic acid deficiency results in the increased urinary excretion of
A) Xanthenuric acid B) Phenyl pyruvate C) Acatoacetate D) Formamino glutamic acid
37. Dealcoholization in tissue processing is
A) Fixation B) Embedding C) Decalcification D) Clearing
38. ESR indicates concentration of
A) WBC B) RBC C) Platelets D) None of the above
39. Which is abnormal Hb?
A) Hb – A B) Hb – A2 C) Hb – C D) Hb – F
40. Fragments of red blood cells are called:
A) Burr B) Acanthocytes
C) Sickle D) Schistocytes
41. What are the ingredients in a PT?
A) Plasma + phospholipid + calcium

3. B) Plasma + thromboplastin + calcium
C) Plasma + phospholipid + thromboplastin
D) Plasma + thrombin + calcium
42. Joseph Lister discovered
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Listeria Monocytogens
C) Autoclave D) Chemical Disinfectants
43. Following is the agglutination type of Ag and Ab reaction
A) Blood grouping B) ASO (Latex) C) CRP (Latex) D) All of the above
44. Reverse Transcriptase Enzyme is present in
A) Rublella virus B) Rabbies virus C) Hepadna virus D) Staphylococcus
45. The greatest buffering capacity at physiological pH would be provided by a protein rich
in which of the following amino acids?
A) Lysine B) Histidine C) Aspartic acid D) Leucine
46. Culture of the biopsy material on NNN medium results in:
A) Amastigote form B)Leptomonas form (promastigote)
C)Epimastigote form D)Leishmania form
47. Indicator used in simmon citrate biochemical medium is
A) Bromothymol blue B) Brilliant green C) Methylene blue D) Malachite green
48. Immunoglobin/ Antibody which may occur in dimeric form.
A) Ig A B) Ig M C) Ig G D) Ig D
49. Which gives smell is like “rotten chicken soup”
A) E. coli B) Salmonella sp C) Pseudomonas sp D) Proteus sp
50. The following parasites cause fever except:
A) Trichenilla spiralis B) Naegleria fowleri C) Hymenolepsis nana D) Plasmodium vivax
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. D
6. C 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. D
16. A 17. B 18. c 19. B 20. C
21. C 22.A 23. A 24. B 25.C
26.C 27.A 28.D 29.B 30.B
31.A 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.C
36.D 37.D 38.D 39.C 40.D
41.C 42. D 43. D 44. C 45.B
46. B 47. A 48. A 49. D 50. C