The passage discusses the objectives and methods of science. It makes three key points:
1) The two major objectives of science are discovery of new data and explanation of connections between data. Discovery leads to explanation, which is more important.
2) Science deals with empirical or observable data revealed through observation or experience. Much scientific work involves expanding the known empirical world through discovery.
3) Explanations in science must be empirical and causal, referring data to established or new principles or generalizations. Description alone is not explanation; causation is required. Theological explanations are not the goal of science.
3. Directions (1-11):
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The questions
are based on what is stated or implied in the passage.
4. PASSAGE - I
India's successful bid to host the 2010 Commonwealth Games in Delhi has been hailed as an
extraordinary victory by sports administrators, promise sportspersons, politicians, barons of industry and
common folk alike. That India, which is home to almost half thepopulation of the British Commonwealth
of nations, will be only the second Asian country (after Malaysia 1998) to host the prestigious, multi-
discipline games, is matter of pride.
In the larger context, India's victorious bid must be viewed against the background of the country's
recent acquired assertive self-identity as a developing nation confidently marching into the new
millennium, leaving behind the colonial choppiness and excess fcjaggage of the past. And what better
way to showcase the emerg-ing identity than on a prestigious centre-stage in the world of sport? India's
giant neighbour, China, showed the way by winning its bid to host the 2008 Olympic Games in Beijing
with a truly impressive show of infra-structure and all-round development. There will be real significance
to New Delhi hosting, just two years after the Beijing Games, a multi discipline event that is sec-ond only
to the Olympics in sheer prestige and size. Not surprisingly, the Indian Olympic Association, the Union
Government and the bid committee have re-ceived kudos from many quarters. The Confederation of
Indian industry has described the successful bid as "a turning point in the history of Indian sports". The
CII, which already has a Memorandum of Understand-ing with the IOA, will be expected to play a key
role in the financial success of the games in a nation whose government can ill afford to spend tens of
5. millions of dollars of taxpayers' money on a mega-event.
Critics have already made the point that the Com-monwealth Games are not good value for money;
In-dian sports are not developed to the extent that the host nation can make a big impression on the
games. What is more, although these games are far less ungovern-able and unwiedly than the
Olympics, it will take a management miracle to make them economically vi-able. This is where the role of
corporate India assumes enormous significance. The games' ultimate success will lie not only in how well
the budgeted amount is spent on infrastructure development, on the games vil-lage and in sprucing up
the nation's capital, but also in the Organising Committee's ability to run the big show without reaching
too deep into the pockets of taxpay-ers.
6. 01 Problem
According to the passage, the ultimate success of organizing Commonwealth
Games will be gauged
by:
a. fund utilization for infrastructure development of the games village.
b. spending of money in bringing up the country's capital
c. ability to conduct within the budgeted amount without much public expense
d. All the above.
7. 02 Problem
Which one of the following is not the view of critics according to the passage?
a. Commonwealth .Games are not good value for money.
b. Indian sports are not developed to the extent that it can make big impression.
c. Commonwealth Games are far less governable than the Olympics.
d. None of these
8. PASSAGE II
The fundamental objectives of sociology are the same as those of science generally — discovery and
explana-tion. To discover the essential data of social behaviour and the connections among the data is
the first objec-tive of sociology. To explain the data and the connec-tions is the second and larger
objective. Science makes its advances in terms of both of these objectives. Some-times it is the discovery
of a new element or set of elements that marks a major breakthrough in the his-tory of a scientific
discipline. Closely related to such discovery is the discovery of relationships of data that had never been
noted before. All of this is. as we know, of immense importance in science. But the drama of discovery, in
this sense, can sometimes lead us to overlook the greater importance of explanation of what is revealed
by the data. Sometimes decades, even centuries, pass before known connections and relation-ships are
actually explained. Discovery and explanation are the two great interpenetrating, interacting realms of
science.
The order of reality that interests the scientists is the empirical order, that is, the order of data and
phe-nomena revealed to us through'observation or experi-ence. To be precise or explicit about what
is, and is not, revealed by observation is not always easy, to be sure. And often it is necessary for our
natural powers of observation to be supplemented by the most intricate of mechanical aids for a given
object to become "empiri-cal" in the sense just used. That the electron is not as immediately visible as is
the mountain range does not mean, obviously, that it is any less empirical. That so-cial behaviour does
9. not lend itself to as quick and ac-curate description as, say, chemical behaviour of gases and compounds
does not mean that social roles, sta-tuses, and attitudes are any less empirical than mol-ecules and
tissues. What is empirical and observable today may have been nonexistent in scientific conscious-ness a
decade ago. Moreover, the empirical is often data inferred from direct observation All of this is clear
enough, and we should make no pretense that there are not often shadow areas between the empirical
and the nonempirical. Neverthless, the first point to make about any science, physical or social, is that its
world of data is the empirical world. A very large amount of scien-tific energy goes merely into the work
of expanding the frontiers, through discovery', of the known, observable, empirical world.
From observation or discovery we move to expla-nation. The explanation sought by the scientist is, of
course, not at all like the explanation sought by the theologian or metaphysician. The scientist is not
inter-ested — not, that is in his role of scientist - in ultimate, transcendental, or divine causes of what he
sets him-self to explain. He is interested in explanations that are as empirical as the data themselves. If it
is the high incidence of crime in a certain part of a large city that requires explanation, the scientist is
obliged to offer his explanation in terms of factors which are empirically real as the phenomenon of
crime itself. He does not explain the problem, for example, in terms of refer-ences to the will of
God, demons or the original sin. A satisfactory explanation is not only one that is
empiri-cal, however, but one that can be stated in the terms of a causal proposition. Description is an
10. beginning, but description is not explanation. It is well to stress this point, for there are all too many
scientists, or would be scientists, who are primarily concerned with data gathering, data counting, and
data describing, and who seem to forget that such opera-tions, however useful, are but the first step.
Until we have accounted for the problem at hand, explained it causally by referring the data to some
principle or generalization already established, or to some new prin-ciple or generalization, we have not
explained anything.
11. 03 Problem
The major objective of the second paragraph is:
a. to show electrons are empirical data
b. to demonstrate the difference between chemis-try and sociology
c. to show that science changes as time passes
d. to explain what the term 'empirical order' means
12. 04 Problem
Which of the following statements best agrees with the author's position?
a. Causation is a basis for explanation
b. Generalization is a prerequisite for explanation
c. Empiricism is the science of discovery
d. Explanation is inferred from data
13. 05 Problem
According to the passage, scientists are not inter-ested in theological explanations
because:
a. theology cannot explain social behaviour
b. scientists are primaly concerned with data col-lection.
c. theological explanations are not empirical
d. scientists tend to be atheists
14. 06 Problem
What is the major objective of the passage?
a. Discuss scientific method
b. Explain the main objectives of sociology
c. Prove that sociology is a science.
d. Show that explanation is more important than discovery.
15. 06 PASSAGE III
Higher education in modern society seeks to preserve, transmit and advance knowledge. Many
experts, com-mittees and commissions have underlined the impor-tance of education as an instrument
of change and progress. The task of nation building depends on the quality and number of persons
coming out of our schools and colleges. The National Policy on Education (NPE) was formulated in 1968
with this long-term objective.
In a highly competitive social environment, only the best courses will attract students.
Therefore, Govern-mental agencies demand universities to demonstrate their commitment to quality
before funding new courses. Traditional education is losing its aura, and the new course should have
their direct bearings on society. Educational institutions should develop a quality per-spective, adopting
corporate practices such as strategic planning, delegation of responsibility and fixing account-ability
norms. In the present socio-economic milieu, quality in education will appeal to many, especially to
those students who intend to acquire professional skills and training that will establish them in the
employment market. However, it is to be noted that quality assur-ance in education cannot be only
student centric but should also be society-oriented, as society supports the education system. Every
educational institution needs to set out its mission to meet the expectations of soci-ety and its people
and the country at large.
The philosophy of total quality management (TQM) has its relevance in educational institutions too. It
16. is understood as application of management techniques for continuous quality improvement (CQI) in the
academia with appropriate tools for meeting the needs and expectations of the stakeholders. The TQM
ap-proach in educational institutions emphasizes that the institute should have a vision of what it wants
to be and clearly define its mission compatible with the vision, and accordingly lay down its objectives to
be trans-formed into specific, attainable, meaningful goals. The question is: How many educational
institutions have a well-defined vision, mission and objectives and how effective are they in working
towards accomplishment of the objectives? Frankly, many institutions in the realm of higher education
lack the courage and commitment to implement TQM.
Quality in higher education can be attained only when promoters understand its significance and their
own role in building a knowledge-society. Government initiatives and other measures will yield effective
re-sults only when educational institutions develop an ethi-cal perspective. It is more relevant in the
context of privatisation of education where the players will have more autonomy in the design of
curriculum, recruitment of faculty, methods of enrolment and evaluation of stu-dents and so on. It is
pertinent in this context to under-stand the concept of ethics. The seven sins of current times can be
reckoned as - business without morality, politics without principles, education without character,
worship without sacrifice, wealth without hard work, devotion without austerity and existence without
regard for the scriptures. Ethics, essentially personal, evolves from an individual's mind. Ethical
17. behaviour of business organisations is shaped by the individual employee's characteristics. Ethics is
grounded in values and, not learned nor taught. Values are learnt from childhood situations. The
dimensions of ethics include adherence to truth, a commitment to justice and personal and public
integrity. The meaning and implications of these are very wide. Integrity in the context of ethics is not
fi-nancial integrity or honesty but integrity of character, which in a broad sense is consistency in
thought, word and deed. Higher education system today is replete with unethical practices by
management and teachers, Proliferation of educational institutions, especially pro-fessional colleges, is
attributable largely to the commer-cial motives of wealth and popularity, not contributing to the social
causes of education, knowledge dissemi-nation and shaping the future of the young members of society.
This is in sharp contrast to the ancient practice of education rooted firmly in philanthropic values.
Modern educational institutions pay least attention to the development of infrastructure to facilitate the
learn-ing process. Overcrowded classrooms are a common sight in many professional colleges. Instances
of col-leges admitting students much in excess of the permit-ted intake, blatant flouting of norms
prescribed are abundant. This results in an insufficient teacher-student ratio, which adversely affects the
quality of teaching and quality standards. Conducive atmosphere for learn-ing is also lost in the process.
Recruitment of faculty is another area of concern. Nepotism is rampant, seriously jeopardising the
abilities of institutes to offer value-based and quality-assured education. Student's interests are being
18. subordinated to personal interests and class interests of the promoters. Teachers should also be held
responsible for the declin-ing academic standards. They are pursuing the noble profession of teaching
with commercial motives by relegating teaching to the level of a secondary source of income. Many
academicians do not invest their in-tellectual capital for the betterment of students. In-stead, they
devote their time and energies to their own commercial and political pursuits, other than their
pro-fession, which earns them social recognition and es-teem. These trends have caused a serious
lacunae in the higher education system, which ought to be ori-ented on ethical motives. The current
trend will defeat the very purpose of education, which is intended to mould the youngsters of today into
knowledgeable, Resourceful, creative, and energetic members of soci-ety. Therefore, there is every need
for inculcating ethi-cal behaviour in all individuals, directly or indirectly involved in the functioning of
higher education system. The education system needs to be overhauled before it degenerated further.
The government, the educationists and the stakeholders, parents and students should bring about an
ethical revolution by contributing their part. Only then can India strengthen its values in educating, make
it qualitatively compatible with that of the devel-oped countries, while keeping intact its traditional value
base.
19. 07 Problem
Which of the following has not caused a serious lacunae in the higher education
system?
a. Excess intake of students in various colleges.
b. Poor development of infrastructural facilities
c. Selfless devotion to the cause of students.
d. Teachers devoting their time and energies to commercial motives.
20. 08 Problem
The author is least likely to agree with which of the following views?
a. The quality of education in developed countries is not satisfactory.
b. Student teacher ratio affects the quality of teach-ing.
c. There is a need to inculcate ethical behaviour in teachers to maintain quality
standards in education.
d. Privatization of education would lead to more autonomy of the educational
institutions.
21. 09 Problem
Which of the following is true of the ancient system of education?
a. Traditional educational institutions played an im-portant role in preserving
and advancing knowl-edge.
b. Traditional educational institutions gave due im-portance to the
development of infrastructure to facilitate the learning process.
c. Traditional educational institutions were essen-tially value based.
d. Traditional education had a quality perspective as opposed to modern
institutions.
22. 10 Problem
The author is for privatisation of educational insti-tutes because:
a. private institutes have more autonomy in design-ing their curriculum.
b. students perform better in private institutes.
c. all private institutes have a well defined vision
d. private institutes motivate teachers better.
23. 11 Problem
What is the central idea of the passage?
a. Ethics is vital in all spheres of life
b. The traditional system of education must be re-vived for maintaining quality
standards.
c. The concept of standards and quality used in industry should be applicable in
the field of edu-cation too.
d. The current trend in education has led to the degeneration of the education
system.
24. Directions (12-14):
In each question there are four statements of which one is false. Select the one
which is not appropriate as per standard English usage.
25. 12 Problem
a. When something starts getting smaller in size it is said to be waxing.
b. A yokel is not familiar with the sights and sounds of a big city.
c. An urbane person is an uncouth person.
d. Every scientific theory is explained or justified by a principle or principles
underlying it.
26. 13 Problem
a. Up market products are so positioned that the poor and lower middle classes
prefer to buy them.
b. Those planning to enter brewery business must acquaint themselves with
rudiments, of zymology-
c. A dilettante is a person who follows art or sci-ence for amusement in a
superficial way.
d. Excessive brutality marks x-rated films.
27. 14 Problem
a. Temperance is practicing moderation in food and drink
b. A torpid person is generally hyperactive.
c. When you are uptight you are extremely ner-vous, tensed up
d. An upfront payment is generally made in the open.
29. 15 Problem
To be servile
a. fealty
b. fawn
c. fend
d. fetish
30. 16 Problem
Natural ability
a. foster
b. flaunt
c. flair
d. foible
31. 17 Problem
Very untidy
a. sloth
b. slovenly
c. sloppy
d. sapient
32. 18 Problem
Leading designs of new fashion are
a. basilisk
b. hoopla
c. clothiers
d. haute couture
33. 19 Problem
Sociological factors rather than legal implications should be the focus of study
before society permits the terminally ill to exercise their
a. right to die
b. reciprocal
c. red alert
d. rule of thumb
34. 20 Problem
very hungry, he bought a sandwich.
a. To feel
b. He felt
c. Feeling
d. Feel
35. Directions (21-23):
In each sentence there are four words or phrases which are marked A, B, G and
D. Choose the one which is incorrectly used.
36. 21 Problem
Leaves are believed (A) to be one of the best sub-stance (B) to form (C) compost
piles (D)
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
37. 22 Problem
Against her parent's (A) wishes (B) she wants (C) to be the journalist (D).
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
38. 23 Problem
I was surprised (A) by the large (B) amount (C) of people who came there (D).
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
39. Directions (24-26):
A word is given in capital letters followed by four words. Choose the word that
is the opposite in meaning to it.
40. 24 Problem
DIATRIBE
a. massive
b. range
c. elegy
d. eulogy
41. 25 Problem
BAROQUE
a. simple
b. aglow
c. constant
d. polished
42. 26 Problem
CRYPTIC
a. indifferent
b. famous
c. candid
d. futile
43. Directions (27-29):
A word is given in capital letters. Choose the word that is closest in meaning to it.
44. 27 Problem
INUNDATE
a. abuse
b. deny
c. swallow
d. flood
45. 28 Problem
FRAUGHT
a. wild
b. frantic
c. filled
d. threatening
46. 29 Problem
INEBRIETY
a. starvation
b. felony
c. gluttony
d. drunkenness
47. Directions (30-34):
In each of the following questions a related pair of words or phrases is
followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a
relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
48. 30 Problem
RENEGADE: TURNCOAT : :
a. agitator: fire brand
b. maverick : scapegoat
c. miser: spendthrift
d. reprobate : hot head
49. 31 Problem
BARGE: VESSEL : :
a. link: chain
b. shovel: implement
c. clock: hands
d. brake : automobile
50. 32 Problem
MODERATOR : DEBATE : :
a. conspirator: plot
b. legislator: election
c. chef: banquet
d. umpire : game
51. 33 Problem
GLAND : ENZYME : :
a. muscle : spasm
b. generator : current
c. brain : cortex
d. organ : kidney
52. 34 Problem
POTBOILER : NOVELIST : :
a. symphony : composer
b. caption : car-toonist
c. doggerel: poet
d. easel : painter
54. 35 Problem
By the skin of one's teeth
a. To forego old grievances
b. To take one's time to decide
c. To cost almost nothing
d. By a very small margin
55. 36 Problem
Bark is worse than one's bite
a. Appearances are deceptive
b. Overlook faults in someone
c. To misjudge a person
d. One is not as ferocious as one appears
56. 37 Problem
Back up
a. Move back slowly
b. Withdraw
c. Support
d. Return
57. 38 Problem
Look up to
a. Respect
b. Examine
c. Visit
d. Despise
58. Directions (39-40):
Each sentence is followed by four alternative versions of the underlined portion.
Select the alternative you consider most correct and effective according to the
requirements of standard written English.
59. 39 Problem
Using it wisely, leisure promotes health, efficiency and happiness.
a. If used wisely
b. Because of usefulness
c. Because it is used wisely
d. Having used it wisely
60. 40 Problem
Unless they reverse present policies immediately, the world may suffer
permanent damage from the unregulated use of pesticides.
a. Unless present policies are reversed
b. If present policies will not be reversed
c. Unless present policies will be reversed
d. If it will not reverse present policies.
62. 41 Problem
The two sides of a right triangle containing the right angle measure 3 cm and 4
cm. The radius of the encircle of the triangle is
a. 3.5 cm
b. 1.75 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 0.875 cm
63. 42 Problem
The distance between the tops of two trees 20 m and 28 m high is 17 m. The
horizontal distance be-tween the trees is:
a. 9 m
b. 11m
c. 15 m
d. 31 m
64. 43 Problem
A 25 m long ladder is placed against a vertical wall inside a room such that the
foot of the ladder is 7 m from the foot of the wall. If the top of the ladder slides 4
m downwards, then the foot of the ladder will slide by:
a. 2 m
b. 4 m
c. 8 m
d. 16 m
65. 44 Problem
If two diameters for a circle intersect each other at right angles, then the
quadrilateral formed by joining their end points Is a
a. rhombus
b. rectangle
c. square
d. parallelogram
66. 45 Problem
Of all the chords of a circle passing through a given point in it, the smallest is that
which:
a. is trisected at the point
b. is bisected at the point
c. passes through the centre
d. None of these
67. 46 Problem
If the system 2x + 3y - 5 = 0, 4x + ky - 10 = 0 has an infinite number of
solutions, then:
a. k = 3/2
b. k 1 3/2
c. k 1 6
d. k = 6
68. 47 Problem
In covering a distance of 30 km, Amit takes 2 hours more than Suresh. If Amit
doubles his speed, he would take 1 hour less than Suresh. Amit's speed is:
a. 5 kmph
b. 7.5 kmph
c. 6 kmph
d. 6.25 kmph
69. 48 Problem
What least number must be subtracted from each of the numbers 14, 17, and 42
so that the reminders may be proportional?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 7
70. 49 Problem
In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2:1. If this ratio is to be
1:2, the quantity of water (in liters) to be further added is
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60
71. 50 Problem
The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 :v3. The angle of elevation of
the sun is:
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
72. 51 Problem
The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent would the width
have to be decreased to maintain the same area?
a. 37 ½ %
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 120%
73. 52 Problem
A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 m2. Its di-agonal and longer side together
equal 5 times the shorter side. The length of the carpet is:
a. 5 in
b. 12 m
c. 13 m
d. 14.5 m
74. 53 Problem
The opposite pairs of sides of a square are increased by 40% and 30%
respectively. The area of the re-sulting rectangle exceeds the area of the square
by:
a. 42%
b. 62%
c. 82%
d. 72%
75. 54 Problem
The length of a rope by which a cow must be teth-ered in order that it may be
able to graze an area of 9856 sq metres is:
a. 56m
b. 64 m
c. 88 m
d. 168 m
76. 55 Problem
How many bricks each measuring 24 cm x 11.5 cm x 8 cm will be needed to
construct a wall 8 m long, 6 m high and 23 cm wide, while 5% of the total wall
contains mortar?
a. 5000
b. 5250
c. 4750
d. 4250
77. 56 Problem
The dimensions of an open box are 52 cm x 40 cm x 29 cm. Its thickness is 2cm. If
1 cu cm of metal used in the box weights 0.5g, the weight of the box is:
a. 6.832 kg
b. 7.576 kg
c. 7.76 kg
d. 8.56 kg
78. 57 Problem
How many metres of cloth 2.5 wide will be needed to make a conical tent with
base radius 7m and height 24m?
a. 120m
b. 180m
c. 220 m
d. 550 m
79. 58 Problem
A society of 356 voters has to choose a president. Five candidates are seeking
office. If all voters ex-ercise their votes, what is the least number of votes a
successful candidate could receive and yet have more votes than any other
candidate?
a. 71
b. 72
c. 81
d. 82
80. 59 Problem
Gunjan went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs 25, out of which 30
paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6 percent, what
was the cost of the tax free items?
a. Rs 15
b. Rs 20
c. Rs 15.70
d. Rs 19.70
81. 60 Problem
In an examination, 1100 were boys and 900 were girls. 50% of the boys and 40%
of the girls passed the examination. The percentage of candidates that failed is
a. 45%
b. 45.5%
c. 54.5%
d. 59.2%
82. 61 Problem
A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a single discount of
a. 50%
b. 56.80%
c. 60%
d. 70.28%
83. 62 Problem
The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. The percentage of reduction, that
a family should effect in the use of cooking oil so as not to change its
ex-penditure on cooking oil, is
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%
84. 63 Problem
Two men undertake to do a piece of work for Rs 200. One alone can do it in 6
days, the other in 8 days. With the help of a boy they finish it in 3 days. How
much is the share of the boy?
a. Rs 45
b. Rs 40
c. Rs 30
d. Rs 25
85. 64 Problem
Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes
are used together, how long will it take to fill the tank?
a. 50 minutes
b. 12 minutes
c. 25 minutes
d. 15 minutes
86. 65 Problem
A grocer bought 10 kg of apples for Rs 81 out of which one kg was found rotten. If
he wishes to make a profit of 10% he should sell it at... per kg.
a. Rs. 9.00
b. Rs. 9.90
c. Rs. 10.10
d. Rs. 10.20 .
87. 66 Problem
Sixteen cylindrical cans, each with a radius of 1 unit, are placed inside a
cardboard box, four in a row. The cans touch adjacent cans and/or the walls of
the box. Which of the following could be the interior area of the bottom of the
box in square units?
a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. 128
88. 67 Problem
An express train traveled at an average speed of 100 kilometres per
hour, stopping for 3 minutes af-ter every 75 kilometres. How long did it take to
reach its destination 600 kilometres from the starting point?
a. 6 hr21 min
b. 6hr24min
c. 6 hr 30 min
d. 6 hr 27 min
89. 68 Problem
Two cars are traveling along the same road. The first one, which travels at the
rate of 30 kmph, starts 6 hours ahead of the second one, which travels at the rate
of 50 kmph. How long will it take the sec-ond car to catch up with the first one?
a. 6hours
b. 9hours
c. 12 hours
d. 15 hours
90. 69 Problem
The sum of 6th and 15th elements of an arithmetic progression is equal to the
sum of 7th, 10th and 12th elements of the same progression. Then which
ele-ment of the series should necessarily be equal to zero?
a. 10th
b. 8th
c. 1st
d. None of these
91. 70 Problem
In a 800m race around a stadium having a circum-ference of 20m, the top runner
meets the last run-ner on the 5th minute of the race. If the top runner runs at
twice the speed of the last runner, which is the time taken by the top runner to
finish the race?
a. 20 min
b. 15 min
c. 10 min
d. 5 min
92. 71 Problem
A dairyman pays Rs. 6.40 per litre of milk; he adds water and sells the mixture at
Rs. 8 per litre, thereby making 37.5% profit. Find the proportion of water to milk
received by the customer.
a. 1 : 15
b. 1 : 10
c. 1:20
d. 1:12
93. 72 Problem
A train can travel 20% faster than a car. Both start from a point A at the same
time and reach point B 75 km away from A at the same time. On the way
however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stop-ping at stations. Find the
speed of the car in km per hour.
a. 50 kmph
b. 55 kmph
c. 60 kmph
d. 65 kmph
94. 73 Problem
A manufacturer undertakes to supply 2000 pieces of a particular component at
Rs. 25 per piece. Ac-cording to his estimates, even if 5% fail to pass the quality
tests, he will make a profit of 25%. How-ever as it turned out, 50% of the
components were rejected. What is the loss to the manufacturer?
a. Rs. 12,000
b. Rs. 13,000
c. Rs. 14,000
d. Rs. 15,000
95. 74 Problem
A recipe gives directions to mix 4 parts of substance A with 7.'parts of substance
B. These substances are to be taken by weight, but by mistake they were taken by
volume. Find the error in the percentage of weight of A in the mixture if 117 cm3
of A weights as much as 151 cm3 of B.
a. 5.05%
b. 6.00%
c. 7.05%
d. none of these
96. 75 Problem
The taxi charges in a city comprise of a fixed charge together with the charge of
the distance covered. For a journey of 13 km, the charges paid are Rs. 96 and for
a journey of 18 km, the charges paid are Rs. 131, What will a person have to pay
for traveling a distance of 25 km?
a. Rs. 180
b. Rs. 117
c. Rs. 215
d. Rs. 202
97. 76 Problem
The letters of the word PROMISE are arranged so that no two of the vowels
should come together. Find the total number of arrangements.
a. 49
b. 1440
c. 7
d. 1898
98. 77 Problem
A bag contains 5 red balls and 8 blue balls. It also contains 4 green and 7 black
balls. If a ball is drawn at random, find the probability that it is not green.
a. 5/6
b. ¼
c. 1/6
d. 7/4
99. 78 Problem
A vertical stick 12 m long casts a shadow 8 m long on the ground. At the same
time a tower casts its shadow 40m long on the ground. Find the height of the
tower.
a. 44 m
b. 60 m
c. 68 m
d. 80 m
100. 79 Problem
In a circular lawn there is a 16m long path in the form of a chord. If path is 6 m
away from the cen-tre of the lawn, find the radius of the circular lawn.
a. 16m
b. 6 m
c. 10 m
d. 8 m
101. 80 Problem
Given that Carbon-14 decays at constant rate in such a way that it reduces to 50%
in 5568 years. Find the age of an old wood piece in which carbon is only 12 Vi %
of the original.
a. 1856 years
b. 16704 years
c. 1392 years
d. 22727 years
106. 81 Problem
What is the average rate of contribution of exports to sales during the period
1994-95 to 1998-99 as a percentage?
a. 30,1
b. 27
c. 2.7
d. 138
107. 82 Problem
If the sales for the year 1999-2000 exceed that of 1998-99 by 50% and the profits
increase propor-tionately, what would be the increase in return on equity?
(Assume equity to remain unchanged.)
a. 5%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. Cannot be determined
108. Directions (Questions 83-85):
Answer these questions based on the information in the table given below.
Employment/Year 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997
1. In organised ' 25.6 282 21.7 30.5 352 402 453
sector
2. In unorganised 35.7 41.5 29.1 42.5 502 59.8 75.1
sector
3. Unemployed 15.4 17.1 25.5 22.5 24.8 22.9 24.8
109. 83 Problem
The rate of unemployment was the highest in
a. 1991
b. 1993
c. 1995
d. 1997
110. 84 Problem
The number of employed showed the highest per-centage increase in the year
a. 1996-97
b. 1995-96
c. 1993-94
d. 1991-92
111. 85 Problem
From 1994 to 1997,
a. employment numbers have fluctuated.
b. employment in organised sector has shown steady increase.
c. figures ill all three categories have shown a steady increase.
d. Cannot reach any of the above conclusions.
112. Directions (Questions 86-88):
Study the table given below to answer these questions. The table gives the sales
data of four branches of a paint company in three months of a year.
Branch October November December
First Last Sale First Last Sale First Last Sale
Bill Bill (Rs.) Bill Bill (Rs.) Bill Bill (Rs.)
No. No. (Rs.) No. No. Bill Bill
1. Chennai 2864 2942 345641 2943 3106 461750 3107 3280 485097
2. 4051 4101 147345 4102 .4204 231469 4205 4296 221895
Bangalore
3. Cochin 3469 3601 269473 3602 3704 208947 3705 3762 210494
4. 2644 2703 165442 2704 2787 187928 2788 2841 175427
Hyderabad
113. 86 Problem
The total number of bills raised by the company from October to December are
a. 1045
b. 1155
c. 777
d. 1662
114. 87 Problem
The average sale per bill in the given period was the highest in the branch at
a. Hyderabad
b. Cochin
c. Bangalore
d. Chennai
115. 88 Problem
Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Bangalore branch raised the highest number of bills in December.
B. All branches show increase in sale every month in the period shown.
C. Sale of Hyderabad branch in December was approximately its average sale for
the three months shown.
D. Ranking the branches by sale in the three months shows Chennai in the lead
and Hyderabad com-ing last.
a. A, Band C
b. B, C and D
c. A and B
d. C and D
117. 89 Problem
Australia's exports to Japan, South Asia and Russia in 2000 is approximately
thousands.
a. 185
b. 160
c. 270
d. Cannot be determined
118. 90 Problem
In the given year, total domestic demand of Russia and East Europe is thousand.
a. 50
b. more than 50
c. less than 50
d. Cannot be determined
119. 91 Problem
The shortest route from A to C will be
a. A-B-C, 11
b. A-D-E-C, 15
c. A-B-D-E-C, 19
d. A-D-E-F-C, 26
120. 92 Problem
How many routes are possible between A and H ?
a. One
b. Four
c. Six
d. None
121. 93 Problem
The shortest route from A to H is
a. A-G-H
b. A-D-E-F-H
c. A-D-E-G-H
d. A-B-C-F-H
122. Directions (Questions 94-95):
States Sex Literacy
Male : Female Literate : Illiterate
Uttar Pradesh 5:3 2:7
Bihar 3:1 1 :4
Andhra Pradesh 2:3 2: 1
Karnataka 3:5 3:2
Maharashtra 3:4 5:1
Tamil Nadu 3:2 7:2
Kerala 3:4 9:4
123. 94 Problem
Approximately what is the number of literate people in Maharashtra and
Karnataka together?
a. 4.5 lakh
b. 6.5 lakh
c. 3 lakh
d. 3.5 lakh
124. 95 Problem
In Tamil Nadu, if we suppose 70% of the females and 75% of the males become
literate, what is the total number of illiterates in the state?
a. 75,000
b. 85,000
c. 71,000
d. 81,000
125. Directions (Questions 96-97):
Refer to the following table to answer the questions.
Distribution of marks obtained by 100 students in two papers (I & II) in
Mathematics.
Paper/Marks 40 & 30 & 20 & 10 & below
out of 50 above above above above 10
1 5 22 67 82 18
II 8 31 79 91 9
Average 6 27 71 88 12
(Aggregate)
126. 96 Problem
How many students have scored less than 40% marks in aggregate?
a. 30
b. 12
c. 17
d. 29
127. 97 Problem
What is the percentage of students who have ob-tained 60% an3 more marks in
Paper II over the number of students who obtained 40% and more marks in
aggregate (approximately) ?
a. 44
b. 40
c. 48
d. Data inadequate
128. Directions (Questions 98-100) :
Study and analyse the table given below to answer these questions.
Year Production Export Qty. Rs Domestic Consumption
Crore US$ Million
1990-91 1.70 1.00 279 108 0.54
1996-97 2.05 1.81 1467 452 0.55
1997-98 2.28 1.79 1708 477 0.50
1998-99 2.65 2.12 1752 431 0.50
1999-2000 2.92 2.45 1901 447 0.55
2000-01 3.01 2.47 1374 334 0.58
2001-02 3.06 2.13 1050 246 0.60
129. 98 Problem
The highest percentage of domestic consumption with reference to the
production of coffee has been in the year during the given period.
a. 2001-02
b. 2000-01
c. 1996-97
d. 1990-91
130. 99 Problem
During the given period though the largest quantity of coffee exported has been
lakh tonnes, the for-eign exchange earned in dollars has been the high-est in the
year
a. 3.01,1999-2000
b. 2.47,1997-98
c. 3.06,1997-98
d. None of these
131. 100 Problem
Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. The domestic consumption of coffee has been consistently increasing.
b. The foreign exchange earned in rupees has been increasing during the period
from 1990-91 to 2000-01.
c. The production of coffee in the country has been showing consistently
upward trend during the given period.
d. None of these.
132. Directions (Questions 101-105):
In each of the questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions
(I) and (II). Consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance to the commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusion (s)
definitely follow (s) from the given statements. Indicate your answer as
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if neither I nor II follows
d. if both I and IT follow
133. 101 Problem
Statements:
I. All pilots are brave men.
II. All astronauts are pilots.
Conclusions:
I. All astronauts are brave men.
II. Some pilots are astronauts.
134. 102 Problem
Statements:
I. Some aeroplanes are I iving being.
II. Some non-1 iving beings are ghosts.
Conclusions:
I. Some aeroplanes are ghosts.
II. Some aeroplanes are not ghosts.
135. 103 Problem
Statements:
I. Some hens are cows.
II. All cows are horses.
Conclusions:
I. Some horses are hens.
II. Some hens are horses.
136. 104 Problem
Statements:
I. All lawyers are cheats.
II. Some women are lawyers.
Conclusions:
I. Some women are cheats.
II. All cheats are women.
137. 105 Problem
Statements:
I. All lemons are mangoes.
II. No mango is cheap
Conclusions:
I. All mangoes are lemons.
II. No lemon is cheap.
138. Directions (Questions 106-110):
Each of these has a question and "two statements which are labelled (A) and (B).
Use the data given in (A) and (B) together with other known facts to decide
whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark your answer
as
a. if you can get the answer from (A) ALONE but not from (B) alone.
b. if you can get the answer from (B) ALONE but not from (A) alone.
c. if you can get the answer from BOTH (A) and (B) TOGETHER, but not from (A)
alone or (B) alone.
d. if you CANNOT get the answer from state-ments (A) and (B) TOGETHER, but
need even more data.
139. 106 Problem
A car drives around a circular track once. A sec-ond car drives from point A to
point B in a straight line. Which car travels farther?
a. The car driving around the circular track takes a longer time to complete its
trip than the car traveling in a straight line.
b. The straight line from A to B is 11/2 times as long as the diameter of the
circular track.
140. 107 Problem
Is y larger than x?
a. x + y = 2
b. x/y = 2
141. 108 Problem
Mary must work 12 hours to make in wages the cost of a set of luggage. How
many dollars does the set of luggage cost?
A. Jim must work 15 hours to make in wages the cost of the set of luggage.
B. Jim's hourly wage is 80% of Mary's hourly wage.
142. 109 Problem
A group of 49 consumers were offered a chance to subscribe to 3 magazines: A,
B, and C, 38 of the consumers subscribed to at least one of the maga-zines. How
many of the 49 consumers subscribed to exactly two of the magazines?
A. Twelve of the 49 consumers subscribed to all three of the magazines.
B. Twenty of the 49 consumers subscribed to magazine A.
143. 110 Problem
Which of the four numbers w, x, y, and z is the larg-est?
A. The average of w, x, y, and z is 25.
B. The numbers w, x, and y are each less than 24
144. Directions (Q 111-135):
Each of these questions has one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Mark your
answer as
1. if both A and R are correct and R explains A.
2. if both A and R are correct but R does not ex-plain A.
3. if A is correct but R is wrong.
4. if A is wrong but R is correct.
145. 111 Problem
Assertion (A): A saltwater fish drinks sea water whereas a fresh water fish never
drinks water.
Reason (R): A saltwater fish is hypertonic to its environment while a freshwater
fish is hypotonic to its environment.
146. 112 Problem
Assertion (A): The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States
taken together.
Reason (R): India is a union of states.
147. 113 Problem
Assertion (A): Alcohol rather than mercury is used in a thermometer to measure
a temperature of 60°C.
Reason (R): Alcohol has a lower freezing point than mercury.
148. 114 Problem
Assertion (A): The windows in some buildings are 'double-glazed' (i.e., they have
a thin layer of air between two sheets of glass) to reduce heat losses to the
outside.
Reason (R): Glass is a very bad conductor of heat.
149. 115 Problem
Assertion (A): India is one of the leading fishing countries in the world.
Reason (R): India has a long coastline and a large fish-eating population.
150. Directions (Questions 116-120):
Each of the questions given below consists of two quantities, one in Column A
and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities and mark your answer as
a. if the quantity in column A is greater.
b. if the quantity in column B is greater.
c. if the two quantities at-e equal.
d. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Column AColumn B
157. Directions (121-126):
Each item is represented by a circle. Your task is to match the right parts on the
basis of the relationship among the words in each question.
158. 121 Problem
Water : Atmosphere : : Hydrogen
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
159. 122 Problem
Shirt: Collar:: Pocket:
a. E
b. D
c. A
d. B
160. 123 Problem
English : Latin :: Greek :
a. A
b. F
c. C
d. D
161. 124 Problem
Week : Day : : Year :
a. F
b. E
c. C
d. A
162. 125 Problem
Frame: Model:: Painting:
a. A
b. B
c. E
d. F
163. 126 Problem
City : Children :: State:
a. F
b. E
c. D
d. C
164. Direction (127-131):
Use the information given below to answer the questions.
The office staff of the XYZ Corporation presently consists of three book keepers (A, B and
C) and five secretaries (D, E, F, G and H). Management is plan-ning to open a new office in
another city using three secretaries and two book keepers of the present staff. To do so
they plan to separate certain individuals who do not function well together. The following
guidelines
were established to set up the new office:
i. Book keepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not
be sent as a team to the new office.
ii. C and E function well alone bul not as a team, They should be separated.
iii. D and G have not been on speaking terms for many months. They should not go
together.
iv. Since D and F have been competing for promo-tion, they should not be a team.
165. 127 Problem
If A is to be moved as one of the book keepers, which of the following cannot be
a possible working unit?
a. ABDEH
b. ABDGH
c. ABEFH
d. ABEGH
166. 128 Problem
If C and F are moved to the new office, how many combinations are possible?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
167. 129 Problem
If C is sent to the new office, which member of the staff cannot go with C?
a. B
b. D
c. F
d. G
168. 130 Problem
Under the guidelines developed, which of the fol-lowing must go to the new
office?
a. B
b. D
c. E
d. G
169. 131 Problem
If D goes to the new office which of the following is (are) true?
I. C cannot go
II. A cannot go
III. H must also go
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. I and III only
170. Directions (132-135):
Use the information given below and answer the questions.
After months of talent searching for an administra-tive assistant to the president of the college, the field
of applicants has been narrow down to five (A, B, C, D and E). It was announced that the finalist would be
chosen after a series of all-day group personal inter-views. The examining committee agreed upon the
fol-lowing procedure:
I. The interviews will be held once a week.
II. No more than 3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session.
III. Each candidate will appear at least one.
IV. If it becomes necessary to call applications for additional interviews, no more than one such
applicant should be asked to appear the next week.
V. Because of a detail in the written applications, it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A
should also be present.
VI. Because of travel difficulties, it was agreed that C will appear for only one interview.
171. 132 Problem
At the first interview, the following candidate ap-pear: A, B and D. Which of the
following combina-tions can be called for the interview to be held the next week?
a. BCD
b. CDE
c. ABE
d. ABC
172. 133 Problem
Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in
two successive weeks?
a. ABC; BDE
b. ABD; ABE
c. ADE; ABC
d. BDE; ACD
173. 134 Problem
If A, B and D appear at the interview and D is called for an additional interview
the following week, which two candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A
II. B
III. C
IV. E
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. III and IV only
174. 135 Problem
Which of the following correctly states the proce-dure followed by the search
committee?
I. After the second interview, all applicants have appeared at least once.
II. The committee sees at least one applicant a second time
III. If a third session is held it is possible for all ap- plicants to appear at least
twice.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. III only
175. Directions (136-138):
Study the information given below to answer the questions. A certain city is served by six
subway lines, des-ignated by the letters A, B and C and the number 1, 2 and 3.
• When it snows, morning service on the B line is delayed.
• When it rains or snows, service on lines A, 2 and 3 lines is delayed both morning and
after-noon.
• When the temperature drops below 30° F, af-ternoon service is cancelled on either the
A line or the 3 line, but not both.
• When the temperature rises above 90° F, after-noon service is cancelled on either the C
line or the 3 line, but not both.
• When service on the A line is delayed or can-celled, service on the C line, which connects
with the A line, is delayed.
• When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line, which connects with the 3
lines, is delayed.
176. 136 Problem
On January 10, with the temperature at 15° F, it snows all day. On how many lines
will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
177. 137 Problem
August 15, with the temperature at 97° F, it begins to rain at 1 p.m. What is the
minimum num-ber of lines on which service will be affected?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
178. 138 Problem
On which of the following occasions would service on the greatest number of
lines be disrupted?
a. A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45° F
b. A snowy morning with the temperature at 45° F
c. A rainy morning with the temperature at 45° F
d. A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 20° F
179. Directions (139-140):
Use the statement given below and answer the questions.
All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-
balanced diet; therefore, all athletes who do not a well-balanced diet are bad
ath-letes.
180. 139 Problem
If assumptions of the arguments above are true, then which of the following
statements must be true?
a. No bad athlete wants to win.
b. No athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
c. Every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
d. All athletes who want to win are good athletes.
181. 140 Problem
Which of the following, if true, would refute the as-sumption of the argument
above?
a. Ann wants to win, but she is not a good athlete.
b. Bob, the accountant, eats a well-balanced diet, but he is not a good athlete.
c. All the players on the Burros baseball team eat well-balanced diet.
d. Cindy, the basketball star, does not eat a well- balanced diet, but she is a good
athlete.
182. Directions (141-144):
Study the statements given below and answer the questions.
•A is the father of two children, B and D, who are different sexes.
•C is B's spouse
•E is the same sex as D
•B and C have two children: F, who is the same sex as B, and G, who is the same
sex as C.
•E and mother H, who is married to L, is the sister of D's mother M.
•E and E's spouse, I, have two children J and K, who are the same sex as I.
•No persons have married more than once and no children have been born out
of wedlock. The only restrictions on marriage are that marriage to a sibling, to
a direct descendant, or to more than one person at the same time are
forbidden.
183. 141 Problem
F is
a. G's brother
b. G's sister
c. B's daughter
d. D's niece or nephew
184. 142 Problem
According to the rules, D can marry
a. F only
b. G only
c. J only
d. F, J or K
185. 143 Problem
If L and H divorced, H could marry:
I. D only
II. F
III. D or G
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. II or III, but not both
186. 144 Problem
If the generation of F and K's parents and their sib-lings contains more females
than males, which of the following must be true?
a. There are more females than males in F and K's generation
b. J is male
c. A is the same sex as D
d. K and G are the same sex
188. 145 Problem
Which is the most crowded junction, assuming that each arrow denotes equal
traffic?
a. U
b. X
c. Y
d. Z
189. 146 Problem
What is the maximum number of bus routes pos-sible from X to Y so that the bus
does not come to one junction more than once in a route?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9
191. 147 Problem
In a war between Agreji Pura and Firangi Land, fought for 20 days, the number of
people died on any given day is twice that of the number died on the previous
day (except on the first day). If a total of 1024000 people died on the last day of
this war, the number of people died on 10th day of the war is approximately:
a. 512000
b. 1000
c. 19532
d. None of the above
192. 148 Problem
Two trains bound for New Delhi from Kanyakumari leave Kanyakumari station within an
interval of 30 minutes. For the first train there are 6 stops while for the second train there
are only 5 stops. At each stop, the trains will stop for 15 minutes. Which of the following
statements should be necessarily true?
a. During the entire journey to New Delhi, the sec-ond train will always be behind the first
train.
b.
During the entire journey to New Delhi, the sec-ond train will always be behind first train
if first train stops at all stations in which the second train stops
c. During the entire journey to New Delhi, the sec-ond train will be ahead of the first train
at some points, if second train does not stop at three sta-tions in which the first train
stops.
d. None of the above
193. 149 Problem
In an examination there are 90 questions. Each ques-tion carries 1 mark for the
right answer, - 0.5 for the wrong answer and - 0.25 marks for the unanswered
question. Ramesh had answered all questions and got the number of wrong
questions as half of the number of right questions. James had answered only 80
questions but got marks equal to that of Ramesh. Then,
a. Both James and Ramesh had same number of correct answers.
b. James had more correct answers than Ramesh
c. Ramesh had more correct answers than James
d. Cannot be determined.
194. 150 Problem
A market survey shows that 40% consumers liked Cola drink of brand 'A', 25%
consumers liked Cola drink of brand 'B" and 10% consumers liked both. What
percent of consumers liked neither Cola 'A' nor 'B'?
a. 35%
b. 25%
c. 45%
d. 55%
195. 151 Problem
A person has two parents, four grand parents, eight great grand parents etc. Find
the number of ances-tors which the person has in the 10th generation (assume
that there are no inter-marriages).
a. 102
b. 1024
c. 2054
d. 10208
196. 152 Problem
A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
average number of visi-tors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a
Sunday is:
a. 285
b. 276
c. 250
d. 280
197. 153 Problem
In climbing around pole 15 m high a monkey climbs 5 m and slips 3 in alternate
minutes. To get to the top of the pole, the monkey would take
__________________ min-utes.
a. 10
b. 7
c. 15
d. 11
198. 154 Problem
Parvati has more points than Nishant. Bulbul has fewer points than Lai la. Nishant
and Sam have the same number of points. Sam has more points than Bulbul. If
the above is true, which of the following must also be true?
a. Lai la has more points than Parvati
b. Nishant has fewer points than Laila
c. Parvati has more points than Bulbul
d. Nishan has fewer points than Bulbul
199. 155 Problem
Two mail sorters, X and Y, are working at constant rates. X can sort I letters in 60
minutes, while Y can sort I letters in 30 minutes. How many minutes will it take
them to sort I letters working together but independently?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 45
200. 156 Problem
Spokesman for a chemical company to residents of a nearby town: "We have
conducted tests and have found no evidence that the fumes leaking from our
waste disposal site are harmful to humans. There is no reason to be alarmed
much less to begin evacu-ating people from their homes."
Which of the following would be the least relevant question for the head of the
residents' committee to direct to the chemical company spokesman?
a. What steps are being taken to correct the situa-tion?
b. Are further tests being conducted?
c. How much will it cost you to stop the leaks?
d. Do the fumes have an adverse effect on plants or animals?
201. 157 Problem
Typically; the entrepreneur is seen as an individual who owns and operates a
small business. But, sim-ply to own and operate a small business or even a big
business does not make someone an entrepre-neur. If this person is a true
entrepreneur, then new products are being created, new ways of providing
services are being implemented.
Which of the following conclusion can best be drawn from the above passage?
a. Someone who develops an enterprise may be considered an entrepreneur.
b. Entrepreneurs do not own and operate small business.
c. Entrepreneurs are the main actors in economic growth.
d. Entrepreneurs are inventors.
202. 158 Problem
The burning of coal, oil, and other combustible en-ergy sources produce carbon
dioxide, a natural con-stituent of the atmosphere. Elevated levels of car-bon
dioxide are thought to be responsible for half the greenhouse effect. Enough
carbon dioxide has been sent into the atmosphere already to cause a significant
temperature increase. Growth in indus-trial production must be slowed, or
production pro-cesses must be changed.
Which of the following, if true, would tend to weaken the strength of the above
conclusion?
a. Carbon dioxide is bad for health.
b. Most carbon dioxide is emitted by automobiles.
c. Industry is switching over to synthetic liquid fuel extracted from coal.
d. A shift to other energy sources would be too costly.
203. 159 Problem
Monopoly is characterized by an absence of or de-cline in competition. The ABC
Company realizes that its operations are in competitive industries.
Which of the following conclusions may be inferred from the above?
a. ABC's market is not monopolistic
b. The ABC Company has no domestic competi-tors
c. The ABC Company is publicly owned.
d. The ABC Company is in a service industry.
204. 160 Problem
In a world of many trading countries, the trade be-tween two countries need not
be balanced for the trade of each to be in global balance. Differing de-mands and
productive capabilities among countries will cause a specific country to have
trade deficits with some countries and surpluses with other coun-tries.
Which of the following conclusions best summarises the passage above?
a. A country's trade will always be in balance even though it runs a deficit with a
single country.
b. A country's trade deficits and surpluses with other countries always balance
out.
c. A country's global trade balance is a sign of strength or weakness.
d. A country's global trade balance is determined by relative demand and
productive capabilities
206. 161 Problem
In July 23,2003, India's first matrimonial service on mobile phone was launched
by the consortium of:
a. BPL Mobile and Escotel
b. Escotel and RPG Cellular
c. Escotel, BPL Mobile and Spice Cellular.
d. BPL Mobile, Escotel, RPG Cellular and Spice
207. 162 Problem
When was the human genome map unveiled?
a. February 2001
b. February 2002
c. January 2001
d. None of these
208. 163 Problem
When were the Bharat Ratna and other national awards introduced?
a. 1950
b. 1947
c. 1954
d. 1960
209. 164 Problem
"The Gram Sabha was the foundation on which the three tiered Panchayati Raj
System rests and from which they derive their strength and legitimacy." Against
this background, which was declared as the 'Year of Gram Sabha?
a. 1998-1999
b. 1999-2000
c. 2000-2001
d. 2001-2002
210. 165 Problem
Which one of the following is the indigenously de-veloped pilotless target
aircraft?
a. Hansa
b. Akash
c. Lakshya
d. None of these
211. 166 Problem
The authority signing on a "One-Rupee Note" is
a. Governor
b. Secretary, Ministry of Finance
c. RBI Chief
d. Chief Minister
212. 167 Problem
IRDA stands for
a. Insurance Regulatory & Development Author-ity
b. Indian Rural Development Agency
c. Institute for Rural Development Area
d. Insurance Research and Development Agency.
213. 168 Problem
Eight Sixth Constitutional Amendment made free and compulsory education for
all between________ a fundamental right.
a. 10 and 20 years
b. 5 and 20 years
c. 6 and 14 years
d. 10 and 14 years
214. 169 Problem
Which popular indoor game was originally called Lexico.
a. Carom
b. Scrabble
c. Badminton
d. Table-Tennis
215. 170 Problem
Mobile Banking-an application through which Re-liance India mobile subscribers
can view their bank account balance, get mini-statements, fixed deposit
details, request for Cheque book, make stop Cheque requests and bill payments
from their handsets any time and from anywhere. Reliance has joined hands
with __________ for the Mobile Banking Application.
a. ICICI
b. SBI
c. Citibank
d. HDFC Bank
216. 171 Problem
SEBI has introduced "rolling settlement" for selected shares. What does this
mean?
a. All shares have to be paid on the day of pur-chase.
b. Purchasers have to make advance payment for the shares.
c. Purchase can be set off against sales.
d. Payment has to be settled at the end of fifth day.
217. 172 Problem
Which two companies have formed a research and collaboration alliance to
develop patented drugs?
a. Ranbaxy and Glaxo Smithkline
b. Ranbaxy and Penacea Biotech
c. Nicholas Piramal and Ranbaxy
d. None of these
218. 173 Problem
Hollywood actress Karan Khmer has won the Best Actress Award at the 56th
Locarno International Film Festival in August 2003 for her role in Khams Pacing.
The festival was held in
a. Paris
b. Tokyo
c. Switzerland
d. Singapore
219. 174 Problem
An Arjuna Award winner Anju Bobby George has become the first Indian athlete
to win a medal at the world Athletics Championship held in Paris. She has won
bronze medal in
a. High Jump
b. Shooting
c. Long Jump
d. Gymnastics
220. 175 Problem
Oberon, Titania, Arial, Umbrial and Miranda are the five chief satellites of which
planet?
a. Jupiter
b. Neptune
c. Uranus
d. Mars
221. 176 Problem
The full form of TRAI is:
a. Transport Regulatory Authority of India
b. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
c. Telecom Regulatory Agency of India
d. Transport Regulatory Agency of India
222. 177 Problem
The first of the six 250 m w units of the 1500 mw nathpa jhakari hydel power
project has been launched in October 2003 in
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Haryana
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Kerala
223. 178 Problem
Excise Duty on a commodity is payable with refer-ence to its
a. production
b. production and sale
c. production and transportation
d. production, transportation and sale
224. 179 Problem
Where is SAARC secretariat situated?
a. Islamabad
b. Colombo
c. Kathmandu
d. New Delhi
225. 180 Problem
Who received the Wisden Award for the "Indian Cricketer of the 20th Century?
a. Sachin Tenclulkar
b. Kapil Dev
c. Sunil Gavaskar
d. Ajit Wadekar
226. 181 Problem
The TC' chip used in computers is made of
a. Chromium
b. Iron-Oxide.
c. Silica
d. Silicon
227. 182 Problem
The book "The Kargil Conflict 1999 — Separating Fact from Fiction" is written
by:
a. Dr. Shireen Mazari
b. Khuswant Singh
c. Nawaz Sharif
d. None of these
228. 183 Problem
China becomes the third country after Russia and the US to send a man into
orbit in their own space vehicle. The chosen "taikonaut" is:
a. Niel Armstrong
b. Yang Li Wei
c. Ho Chi Minh
d. Ho Li Wei
229. 184 Problem
India won the sixth men's Asia Cup Hockey tourna-ment held in September, 2003
in Kuala Lumpur by beating:
a. Korea
b. Pakistan
c. Japan
d. China
230. 185 Problem
India's exclusive communication satellite___________ was launched from the
spaceport of Kourou in French Guyana on 28th September 2003.
a. INSAT-3E
b. INSAT-2DT
c. INSAT-3D
d. INSAT-3D
231. 186 Problem
Afro-Asian Games from 24 October, 2003 to 1 No-vember, 2003 were held at
a. New Delhi
b. Kolkata
c. Hyderabad
d. Chennai
232. 187 Problem
According to "India Vision 2020" if India has to at-tain the goal of total
employment by the year 2020, it should work towards generating scope for
jobs per year.
a. 1 million
b. 2 million
c. 5 million
d. 10 million
233. 188 Problem
Which among the following foreign banks is complet-ing 150 years of its
establishment this year?
a. HSBC
b. Bank of Tokyo
c. Bank of America
d. None of these
234. 189 Problem
Which one of the following provides fixed line tele-phone services with
numbers starting with 2?
a. Reliance Infocom
b. Tato Infocom
c. BSNL
d. Hutch
235. 190 Problem
In which State is Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary located?
a. Maharashtra
b. Orissa
c. Gujarat
d. Rajasthan
236. 191 Problem
The punch line used by HUTCH is
a. "The name inspires trust"
b. "Improving the quality of life"
c. "Wherever you go our network follows"
d. "Express yourself'
237. 192 Problem
Which country has banned the word 'E-mail' from all government publications
and websites and re-placed it by "Courier"?
a. England
b. USA
c. Italy
d. France
238. 193 Problem
Because you deserve to know" is the punch line used by
a. The Times of India
b. The Hindu
c. Indian Express
d. Hindustan Times
239. 194 Problem
Petroleum prices, in the world are determined by
a. IMF
b. IBRD
c. OPEC
d. None of these
240. 195 Problem
On 29 October 2003, the fourth flight test of super-sonic antiship cruise missile
was conducted. The name of the missile is
a. Brahmos
b. Agni
c. Naag
d. Trishul
241. 196 Problem
The fifth Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organisation (WTO) was held
from 10 to 14 September 2003 at:
a. Tokyo
b. Cancun
c. New Delhi
d. Geneva
242. 197 Problem
Saatrik Agarwal, a 14-year-old boy has been cho-sen as a "Student Astronaut" for
NASA's Mars exploration. The boy belongs to:
a. Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Kolkata
d. Chennai
243. 198 Problem
The capital of Lakshadweep is:
a. Port Blaif
b. Silvassa
c. Daman
d. Kavaratti
244. 199 Problem
Which of the following colours are mixed to bring out the several colours seen on
TV?
a. Red, Yellow, Blue
b. Red, Yellow, Green
c. Red, Green, Blue
d. Yellow, Green, Blue
245. 200 Problem
Which of the following: agencies does not finance local bodies for infrastructural
development?
a. LIC
b. HUDCO
c. CRISIL
d. All the above
